Zydus Medtech, Braile Biomedica of Brazil ink global licensing pact to commercialise TAVI technology

Ahmedabad: Zydus MedTech Private Limited, a wholly owned subsidiary of Zydus Lifesciences Limited
specializing in medical technology development, has entered into a strategic partnership with
Braile Biomédica Indústria, Comércio e Representações Ltda., (Braile Biomedica) – an
innovative cardiovascular device manufacturer based in Brazil – to exclusively commercialize
its Transcatheter Aortic Valve Implantation (TAVI) technology across Europe, India, and other
select markets.


This agreement marks Zydus MedTech’s strategic expansion into the fastgrowing interventional cardiology segment.

The global TAVI market, currently valued at over
USD 6 billion, continues to witness strong growth driven by the increasing incidence of aortic
stenosis and the rising demand for minimally invasive cardiac procedures.

Zydus MedTech will introduce
Braile Biomedica’s advanced balloon-expandable TAVI system to international markets.

Braile Biomedica will manufacture and supply
the product for these markets.
In addition to spearheading commercialization, Zydus MedTech will also retain rights to
manufacture select components of the TAVI system.

This collaboration provides operational
flexibility while laying the foundation for further product innovation and development.
This agreement aligns with both companies’ shared commitment to delivering life-saving
technologies to a broader patient population.

“The TAVI procedure is a recognized breakthrough
in structural heart care, particularly for elderly patients or those at high surgical risk. By replacing
the diseased aortic valve through a catheter-based approach – without the need for open-heart surgery – patients often experience significantly shorter recovery times and reduced procedural
risks.

The expansion of TAVI indications to all-risk patients has further accelerated its adoption. The system was developed based on the doctoral thesis of Dr.
Domingo Braile, a pioneer of cardiac surgery in Brazil. Braile’s valve features a unique bovine
pericardium sheet, used as a single piece rather than three separate leaflets, ensuring exceptional
biocompatibility, durability, and performance.
The device must be collapsible, navigable through complex vascular anatomy, and fully
functional upon deployment — all while maintaining structural integrity. This engineering
precision and real-time deployment capability exemplify the fusion of innovation and
performance, making it a next-generation, high-value product in cardiac care,” the release stated.

“The synergy between Zydus MedTech’s marketing and regulatory strengths and Braile
Biomedica’s deep technological expertise is expected to accelerate the global adoption of this
life-saving therapy. Over the next three years, the partnership aims to launch a series of new
innovations, supported by a robust clinical research program beginning next year in the regions
covered under the agreement,” the release added.

Dr. Sharvil Patel, Managing Director of Zydus Lifesciences Ltd., said “We stand united with
Braile to improve patient outcomes and expand access to advanced, critical cardiovascular care
globally. This innovative, cutting-edge technology will offer a minimally invasive approach that
also supports faster recovery, reduced hospital stays, and greatly improved quality of life for
patients.”

Patricia Braile, CEO of Braile Biomedica, said “This partnership with Zydus MedTech
powerfully reinforces Braile’s mission to care for people and help save lives. Seeing our TAVI
technology — the result of decades of dedication to cardiovascular innovation — reach new
continents is the fulfilment of a purpose that has driven us for nearly fifty years. By joining forces
with a partner that shares our values and commitment, we expand our global impact and bring
hope and quality of life to even more patients around the world.”

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Pay doctor, consider bond service completed: HC orders GMC

Chennai: The Madras High Court has directed the Government Villupuram Medical College to pay salary to a doctor for the period of work and consider completion of her bond service requirements. Apart from this, the HC bench comprising Justice N Mala has also asked the institute to issue an experience certificate to the doctor and pass a relieving order from the bond service within four weeks.

The petitioner completed her post-graduation (MS) at the Government Stanley Medical College. As a non-service doctor, the petitioner executed a bond obligating her to serve the Government for two years on completion of the postgraduation.

She also submitted her original educational certificates at the time of admission to the authorities. However, after completing her post-graduate studies in May 2021, the petitioner did not receive posting orders for nearly a year, and therefore, she filed a plea seeking a return of the original document and certificates. 

Earlier, the Court on 03.06.2022 had directed the college to return the documents and the said order was duly complied with. On 07.07.2022, the petitioner was issued a posting order assigning her to the college for two years. Even though the posting order was delayed, the petitioner joined services on 18.07.2022. 

The petitioner availed maternity leave from 25.07.2022 to 24.07.2023 and also unpaid leave from 25.07.2023 to 05.12.2023 and thereafter rejoined the service on 06.12.2023. The petitioner stated that on lapse of two years from the date of completion of the course, the bond period concluded and therefore the petitioner formally resigned and submitted a request on 06.12.2024, to be relieved from service. Since the college did not respond to the petitioner’s request, the petitioner filed a plea, seeking direction from the authorities, including the Directorate of Medical Education and Research (DMER), and the Directorate of Public Health and Preventive Medicine to treat her bond period as completed, and further direct the Government Villupuram Medical College to release her pending salary from 01.09.2024 to 05.12.2024, issue an experience certificate, and pass a relieving order from bond service.

While considering the matter, the Court noted that the petitioner completed her bond service and she argued that the college was bound to pay her the salary from 01.09.2024 to 05.12.2024, to issue an experience certificate and pass a relieving order from the bond service.

“The respondents have not disputed that the petitioner has completed her bond service, if so, in my view, on the completion of the bond period, the respondents are bound to pay the petitioner salary, to issue experience certificate and pass relieving order from bond service. I am therefore inclined to issue the mandamus as prayed for,” the HC bench observed.

Accordingly, the Court directed the college to release the petitioner’s salary from 01.09.2024 to 05.12.2024, issue experience certificate and pass relieving order from the bond service to the petitioner.

“In view of the above discussions, the 5 th respondent is directed to release the petitioner’s salary from 01.09.2024 to 05.12.2024, issue experience certificate and pass relieving order from the bond service to the petitioner, within a period of four (4) weeks, from the date of receipt of a copy of this order,” the HC bench ordered.

To view the Court order, click on the link below:

https://medicaldialogues.in/pdf_upload/madras-hc-bond-service-283701.pdf

Also Read: No Bond Service Posting in 4 Years- Madras HC orders medical college to Return MCh Doctor’s Documents

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How much is NBE charging for NEET PG 2025?…

New Delhi- The National Board of Examinations in Medical Sciences (NBEMS) is conducting the registration process for the National Eligibility and Entrance Test-Postgraduate (NEET PG) exam for the academic year 2025 PG medical admissions. The information bulletin has been released on the official website of NBEMS. All the interested candidates are advised to take note of the Exam Fee and other important details as mentioned below.

Examination Fee : 

Category of Candidates Examination Fee
General , OBC and EWS Rs. 3500/-
SC,ST, PWD Rs. 2500/-

*Excluding charges as may be applicable by various payment gateways.  

Applications forms once submitted cannot be withdrawn. Fee shall neither becarried forward to a future date nor refunded under any circumstances. Any claim for refund, adjustment or carrying forward of Application fee will not be entertained.

How to pay: The prescribed exam fee should be remitted through paymentgateway provided using UPI or Credit Card / Debit Cards issued by banks in India or other modes as may be made available and have been provided on the web page. Fee can not be deposited through any mode other than thepayment  gateway available while submitting online application formsubmission.

Examination fees in respect of candidates who are absent or have been declared ineligible due to any reason shall be forfeited. Candidates are advised to read the information bulletin for NEET-PG 2025 carefully and satisfy the terms and conditions for fulfilment of eligibility criteria beforeproceeding for payment of fees.

Kindly ensure that the payment made for examination fee is successful and confirmation of the same can be seen in the application form under payment status reflected as “S” (for successful). In case the status is shown as pending, the payment might be stuck with your bank and might be cleared at a later date. The application submission process in not completed till suchtime the status of payment is reflected as “S” in application form. NBEMS shall not be responsible for rejection of your application due to delay in settlement of the payment by your bank to NBEMS.

In an event of receipt of duplicate/multiple examination fees towards the same application ID, NBEMS shall refund the excess fees received for an application retaining the prescribed examination fee, after closure of application window.

SCHEDULE

S.NO

PROCESSES

TIMELINES

1

Online Submission of Application Form.

17th April 2025 (03:00 PM Onwards) to 07th May 2025 (Till 11:55 PM).

2

Edit Window for All Payment Success Applications (Any information/documents can be edited except Name, Nationality, Email, Mobile number and Test City).

09th May 2025 to 13th May 2025

3

Pre-Final Selective Edit Window to rectify Deficient/Incorrect Images

-Photograph

-Signatures

-Thumb Impression.

17th May 2025 to 21st May 2025

4

Final Selective Edit Window to rectify Deficient / Incorrect Images Photograph Signatures Thumb Impression (No further opportunity shall be given).

24th May 2025 to 26th May 2025

5

Informing the Test City to the candidates.

02nd June 2025

6

Issue of Admit Cards.

11th June 2025

7

Examination Date.

15th June 2025

8

Declaration of Result

By 15th July 2025

9

Cut-off date for completion of internship towards eligibility for NEET-PG 2025.

31st July 2025

Information for Candidates

NEET-PG 2025 is the eligibility-cum-ranking examination for admission to various MD/MS/PG Diploma courses of 2025-26 admission session. Admissions to Post MBBS DNB Courses, Post MBBS Direct 6 year DrNB courses and NBEMS diploma courses are also undertaken through NEETPG.

NEET-PG 2025 will be conducted by NBEMS. The role of NBEMS is limited to the conduct of NEET-PG, declaration of the result and handing over the result to the designated counseling authority. NBEMS has no role in counseling and allotment of PG seats. Verification of documents and eligibility determination of the candidates shall be undertaken at the time of counseling/admission process by the concerned authority.

Candidate may kindly note that appearance in NEET-PG does not confer any automatic rights to secure a Post graduate MD/MS/Post Graduate Diploma seat. The selection and admission to Postgraduate seats in any medical institutions recognized for running MD/ MS/Post Graduate Diploma courses as per the National Medical Commission (NMC) Act, 2019 and the Post Graduate Medical Education Regulations, 2023 is subject to fulfilling the admission criteria, eligibility, medical fitness and such criteria as may be prescribed by the respective universities, medical institutions, the NMC, State/Central Government.

Candidates are advised to read the Information Bulletin carefully and go through the instructions regarding submission of online application form given in the information bulletin as well as on NEET-PG 2025 index page on NBEMS website before starting online submission process for NEET-PG 2025 .

Candidates are deemed to have read, agreed and accepted the Information Bulletin and the terms and conditions in the Information Bulletin for NEET-PG 2025 on completing the online submission of application form.

Candidate should ensure that all the information entered during the online submission of application form is correct and factual. Information provided by the candidates in the online application form shall be treated as correct. The responsibility of correctness of information in the application form shall be of the concerned candidate. The option of editing certain information entered in the application form shall be available to the candidates during the edit window. NBEMS will not entertain, under any circumstances, any request for change in the information provided by the candidates after closure of the edit window. Please refer Chapter on Instructions to fill Application Form for details regarding Edit Window.

NBEMS itself does not edit /modify/alter any information entered by the candidates at the time of online submission of application form under any circumstances. There is no provision of accessing the application form to make any changes in the information provided in the application form after closure of edit window. Such requests to make any changes shall not be entertained. Candidates, however, shall be able to rectify the deficiencies in their application (if so communicated by NBEMS) regarding images uploaded, by the prescribed cut-off dates.

Please refer Chapter on Instructions to Fill NEET-PG Application Form. Candidates are advised to review their applications submitted and rectify the deficiencies, if found any, within the window as detailed below. Candidates may note that deficiency in the application form pertaining to images uploaded may be communicated to them by NBEMS, however, it shall be the sole responsibility of the applicant to ensure that the application submitted is complete in all aspects as per the information bulletin. If any deficiency in the application which was not communicated by NBEMS to the applicant before conduct of the examination, is noted at any later stage, this would not create any equity in favour of the candidate and confer any rights on to the candidates for grant of eligibility for the examination.

Edit Window: Candidates who have successfully submitted their payment for the application during Application Submission window shall only be allowed to edit their applications during 09th May 2025 to 13th May 2025. No new application can be registered or payment can be made during edit window. However, the balance fee required, if any, in case of change in candidate category and/or PwD status can be paid during the edit window. Any information/document can be changed/corrected during the edit window except for Name, Test City, Nationality, Mobile Number and Email ID. Information can be edited any number of times before the closure of the edit window. The last submitted information will be saved in records.

Final Edit Window: Deficiency related to images uploaded (photograph, Signature, Thumb Impression) shall be intimated to the concerned candidates and same can be corrected during the Pre-Final Selective edit window i.e. 17th May 2025 to 21st May 2025. A list of such applicants who would fail to rectify their images in the application form shall be published on NBEMS website and a FINAL Selective Edit window will be opened from 24th May 2025 to 26th May 2025 for them to enable them to rectify the images as per image upload guidelines. Applications of such candidates who would fail to rectify their images even during this FINAL edit window shall be rejected. No further opportunity shall be given to make corrections.

Candidates are advised to submit the images in their application as per prescribed image upload guidelines. Failure to submit images as per guidelines and/or failure to rectify the images shall invite rejection of the application.

Application for NEET-PG 2025 can only be submitted online through NBEMS website.

There is no other methodology for application submission. Application submitted through any other mode shall be summarily rejected.

A candidate can submit NEET-PG 2025 application form only once. If a candidate is found to have submitted more than one application form for NEET-PG 2025, NBEMS may issue admit card to the application bearing higher order Application number (application ID) and cancel other application(s) forfeiting the fee for them. In an event any unfair practice is detected by NBEMS at any stage of examination/admission process, NBEMS may cancel the candidature of such candidates and debar them from appearing in any examinations conducted by NBEMS as per provisions of the Unfair Means Guidelines.

Candidates who fail to submit duly completed applications with requisite documents and/or fail to rectify the deficiencies in their applications by the last date prescribed for rectification shall be declared ineligible. Admit Card shall not be issued to candidates who are declared ineligible before conduct of examination. In such cases, the entire fees will be forfeited.

Applications of candidates producing false or fabricated information/records will not be considered and such candidates will be further debarred from appearing in the future examinations of NBEMS. Action as deemed appropriate by NBEMS will be taken if false or fabricated records/ information is submitted or any unfair means are used.

Candidates are advised to ensure that the information provided is factual and supported with documents. Columns marked (*) in the application form are mandatory and can not be left blank. In the event of rejection of the application form, no correspondence/request for re-consideration will be entertained.

Candidates should ensure before applying for the examination that their MBBS degree is recognized as per provisions of the NMC Act, 2019 and the Post Graduate Medical Education Regulations, 2023. If it is found at any time that MBBS degree is not recognized, the candidature / result of the candidate shall be cancelled/ deemed to be cancelled.

Candidates should go through this bulletin carefully for eligibility criteria before applying. Queries pertaining to eligibility and other issues will only be entertained if the information requested is not given in the bulletin of information or NBEMS website. No Queries of the Guardians/Parents will be entertained on telephone with regard to the eligibility and disclosure of the results.

Submission of incomplete online application form not in accordance with prescribed instructions shall invite rejection of the application. In such cases, the examination fee shall not be refunded.

Candidate found ineligible at any stage of NEET-PG 2025 Examination, will not be permitted to appear in the examination. In an unlikely event of any ineligible candidate appearing and/or passing the NEET-PG 2025 examination, the results/candidature of such candidate shall be cancelled and/or is deemed to be cancelled, even if result has been declared or score card has been issued.

NBEMS reserves the right to withdraw permission, if any, granted inadvertently to any candidate who is not eligible to appear in the NEET-PG 2025 Examinations even though the admit card/roll number has been issued or name/roll number is displayed on NBEMS website.

Fee shall neither be carried forward to a future exam nor refunded under any circumstances. Application once submitted can not be withdrawn.

Candidates’ eligibility is purely provisional & is subjected to the fulfilment of eligibility criteria as prescribed in this Information Bulletin.

Instructions in the Information Bulletin are liable to change based on decisions taken by the NBEMS / MoHFW / NMC / DGHS from time to time.

There is no equity or any rights that are / or deemed to be arising in favour of candidate. Candidates are required to refer to the latest bulletin or corrigendum that may be issued to incorporate these changes. Refer NBEMS website in for latest updates or corrigendum.

The existing schedule, pattern, policy and guidelines are for ready reference only but in no way, they are or are ought to be treated as representative or acknowledgment of fact that NBEMS is bound to follow the same in future.

NBEMS reserves its absolute right to alter, amend, modify or apply any or some of the instructions/ guidelines contained in this information bulletin.

In case of any ambiguity in interpretation of any of the instructions / terms / rules / criteria regarding the determination of eligibility/conduct of examinations / registration of candidates/information contained herein, the interpretation of the NBEMS shall be final and binding in nature. In case of any discrepancy in the information contained in English and Hindi version of the bulletin, the information mentioned in English language shall be considered final.

Request shall not be entertained for change in date/center of examination under any circumstances. Candidates are advised not to canvass for such representation.

Admit Cards for NEET-PG 2025 can be downloaded at NBEMS website from 11th June 2025 onwards. Candidates found ineligible before conduct of the examination shall not be issued admit cards.

Result of NEET-PG 2025 shall be published on NBEMS websites

NEET-PG 2025 shall be conducted by NBEMS at various exam centres engaged for the purpose. Candidates are advised to familiarise themselves with the route and location of the exam centre well in advance to avoid any last minute delay in arrival to the exam centre. Please refer Chapter on details of Test Day Procedures.

The examination test centre staff on duty is authorized to verify the identity of candidates and may take steps to verify and record the identity of candidates. Candidates are required to extend requisite cooperation.

Possession/Use of mobile phones/Electronic devices is strictly prohibited in the premises of NBEMS test Centres. Candidates shall be liable for penal action for Possession/ Use of Mobile phones/ Electronic devices. Resorting to use of any unfair practice in NEET-PG 2025 shall be dealt with as per the Unfair Mean Guidelines of NBEMS. Such candidates shall be imposed academic and/or criminal punishments as may be applicable. Please go through guidelines detailed in Chapter on use of unfair means in the examination.

Demo Test: A demo test shall be available for the benefit of candidates to familiarise themselves with the Computer Based Test format at website Candidates will be able to access the Demo test tentatively from 05th June 2025 onwards.

The candidates should communicate with NBEMS regarding matters related to NEET-PG 2025 as per prescribed Protocols only, detailed under Chapter on Communication Protocols.

Candidates are encouraged to communicate for NEET-PG 2025 through “Helpdesk” tab which can be accessed after the applicant login to its application account. The correspondence through post should be addressed to the Executive Director, National Board of Examinations in Medical Sciences, Medical Enclave, Mahatma Gandhi Marg, Ansari Nagar, New Delhi110029. Candidates are requested to superscribe the envelope with the subject matter of the correspondence for expeditious processing.

The Registration for NEET-PG 2025 at the time of Counseling to be conducted by designated counseling authority will be as per the details of candidates submitted in NBEMS NEET-PG 2025. Hence, candidates are advised to maintain their same Registration details e.g. mobile number, Email ID etc. as provided in the NBEMS NEET-PG 2025 application form.

The jurisdiction for court cases/disputes shall be at New Delhi Only.

    

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Maharashtra Clears Rs 1,299 Crore Dues to Hospitals under MJPJAY, PMJAY

Pune: In a move aimed at
improving healthcare delivery in Maharashtra, the state government has cleared dues amounting to Rs. 1,299 crore to
hospitals empanelled under the Mahatma Jyotirao Phule Jan Aarogya Yojana (MJPJAY) and the Pradhan Mantri Jan Aarogya Yojana (PMJAY) schemes. These payments were
made between March 1 and April 17, 2025, to ensure the smooth continuation of medical services. 

Also Read:9 Hospitals de-empanelled from MJPJAY, 11 suspended

Currently, 1,359 private and 672 government hospitals are empanelled under these two schemes in Maharashtra. Additionally, 1,352 health procedures are covered, providing access to a wide range of medical treatments for beneficiaries across the state.  

Previously, both MJPJAY
and PMJAY operated under an insurance model, where the state government paid
premiums, and the insurance company handled health claims for the empanelled
hospitals. However, in July 2024, the state switched from the insurance model
to the assurance model, where the Maharashtra government directly took
responsibility for settling treatment charges. This change in the scheme’s
structure led to delays in releasing payments to hospitals over the past
several months, reports the Daily. 

Speaking to Hindustan Times, Annasaheb Chavan, chief executive officer (CEO), State Health Assurance
Society, said, “We have cleared dues of ₹ 1,299 crore of both the
MJPJAY and PMJAY scheme. All dues are cleared, and the process is ongoing,” he
said. The MJPJAY, revamped in
2023, provides universal coverage to beneficiaries, increasing the medical
treatment coverage from ₹1.5 lakh to Rs. 5 lakh per family. Similarly, under
PMJAY, families are entitled to coverage of up to Rs. 5 lakh per year for medical
treatment. 

As per the recent media
reports, Dayanand Jagtap, deputy CEO of State Health
Assurance Society, said that in Maharashtra, there are 13.5 crore and 3.73
lakh families that are beneficiaries of the schemes. “The delay was there as
the payment was not released by the state government due to the transition. The
state government pays the entire amount for MJPJAY and PM-JAY, 40% of expenses
are borne by the state government and 60% by the central government. The state
government gave ₹ 1162 crores to the society to clear the dues, and
the society is likely to receive over ₹ 200 crores from the central
government. However, the scrutiny of bills and treatment documents takes time
for releasing the payment,” he said.

According to Dr.
Omprakash Shete, Head of the Ayushman Bharat Mission Maharashtra Committee, the
government has now successfully cleared all outstanding dues, and the schemes
have been running smoothly since March 2025. He also mentioned that the system had
now been streamlined and that there would be no issues in the future. All
empanelled hospitals had been asked to admit and treat patients without delay
and without demanding upfront payments.

Also Read: IGGMCH Orthopedics Dept performs over 1000 surgeries in a year, Generates Rs 3.64 Crore

Medical Dialogues had
previously reported that the state
government de-empanelled 9 hospitals from the state’s health insurance scheme,
Mahatma Jyotiba Phule Jan Arogya Yojana (MJPJAY), which was launched in 2012 for
the poor patients after the raids carried out by a state-level monitoring team
in the private hospitals at Kolhapur and Sangli.

However, there have been successful
models like the orthopaedics department IGGMCH, also known as Mayo Hospital in
Nagpur, that set a remarkable example among government hospitals by delivering
high-quality treatment while maintaining financial sustainability. Over the
past year, the Hospital generated approximately Rs. 3.64 crore in revenue
through surgeries performed under the Mahatma Jyotiba Phule Jan Arogya Yojana.

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GSK Blenrep combinations approved by UK MHRA in relapsed/refractory multiple myeloma

GSK plc has announced that the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has authorised Blenrep. In the UK, Blenrep is approved for the treatment of adults with multiple myeloma in combination with bortezomib plus dexamethasone (BVd) in patients who have received at least one prior therapy, and in combination with cplus dexamethasone (BPd) in patients who have received at least one prior therapy including lenalidomide. 

Superior efficacy results from the pivotal DREAMM-7 and DREAMM-8 phase III trials in relapsed or refractory multiple myeloma support MHRA authorisation of Blenrep combinations. These include statistically significant and clinically meaningful progression-free survival (PFS) results for Blenrep combinations versus standards of care in both trials and overall survival (OS) in DREAMM-7. The safety and tolerability profiles of the Blenrep combinations were broadly consistent with the known profiles of the individual agents.

Hesham Abdullah, Senior Vice President, Global Head Oncology, R&D, GSK, said, “The approval of Blenrep combinations in the UK is a transformative milestone for patients with multiple myeloma, a cancer marked by remission and relapse. As the only BCMA-targeted ADC therapy, Blenrep has the potential, supported by robust phase III data, to extend survival and remission versus standard of care and redefine treatment at or after first relapse.”
Currently, most patients with multiple myeloma experience relapse, and in the UK only 55% remain alive five years after diagnosis. Blenrep is a anti-BCMA (B-cell maturation antigen) antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) in multiple myeloma, providing patients at or after relapse with a differentiated mechanism of action. Blenrep combinations can be administered to a range of patient types in any oncology treatment setting without complex pre-administration regimens or hospitalisation.

Joseph Mikhael, MD, Chief Medical Officer, International Myeloma Foundation and Professor, Translational Genomics Research Institute, City of Hope Cancer Center, said: “As patients with multiple myeloma increasingly receive combination therapies at diagnosis, treatment options available in the community setting that use different mechanisms like Blenrep are crucial to extending remission and ultimately survival. We are pleased to see this advancement in the treatment landscape extended across both academic and community settings where many patients are treated.”

Both DREAMM-7 and DREAMM-8 showed statistically significant and clinically meaningful PFS improvements for the Blenrep combinations compared to standard of care triplet combinations in the second line or later treatment of multiple myeloma. In DREAMM-7, the Blenrep combination nearly tripled median PFS versus the daratumumab-based comparator (36.6 months versus 13.4 months, respectively (hazard ratio [HR]: 0.41 [95% confidence interval (CI): 0.31-0.53], p-value<0.00001). DREAMM-7 also met the key secondary endpoint of OS, showing a statistically significant and clinically meaningful 42% reduction in the risk of death at a median follow-up of 39.4 months favouring the Blenrep combination (n=243) versus the daratumumab-based comparator (n=251) (HR 0.58; 95% CI: 0.43-0.79; p=0.00023). The three-year OS rate was 74% in the Blenrep combination arm and 60% in the daratumumab combination arm. In DREAMM-8, at a median follow-up of 21.8 months, the median PFS was not yet reached with the Blenrep combination compared to 12.7 months in the bortezomib combination.

Blenrep combinations consistently benefited a broad range of patients, including those with poor prognostic features or outcomes, such as high-risk cytogenetics or those refractory to lenalidomide. Both trials also showed clinically meaningful improvements across all other secondary efficacy endpoints, including deeper and more durable responses versus the respective comparators.

Eye-related side effects, a known side effect of treatment with Blenrep, were generally resolvable, manageable with extended time between infusions and dose reductions while maintaining efficacy, and led to low (≤9%) treatment discontinuations in both trials. The most commonly reported non-ocular adverse events (>30% of participants) in the Blenrep combination arm were thrombocytopenia (87%) and diarrhoea (32%) in DREAMM-7, and neutropenia (63%), thrombocytopenia (55%) and COVID-19 (37%) in the Blenrep combination arm of DREAMM-8.

Blenrep combinations are currently under review in 14 countries, including in the US with a Prescription Drug User Fee Act (PDUFA) date of 23 July 2025,6 European Union, Japan (with priority review), China (based on the results of DREAMM-7, with Breakthrough Therapy Designation for the combination and priority review for the application), Canada, and Switzerland (with priority review for DREAMM-8).

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Agartala Govt Dental College gets Centre’s approval for 3rd-Year BDS Course Renewal

Agartala- In a major development for dental education in Tripura, the Central government has given permission for renewal of third year Bachelor of Dental Surgery (BDS) course at Agartala Government Dental College and IGM Hospital for the academic session 2025-26. This development is a positive step for the state’s dental education infrastructure, strengthening the commitment to quality standards.

The Tripura government has been officially informed of this decision through an order signed by the Under Secretary of the Government of India. As per the directive, renewal has been approved against the original admission capacity of 50 BDS seats. However, this is subject to compliance with the conditions mentioned in the undertaking submitted by the Directorate of Medical Education (DME), Tripura.

Also Read: Tripura plans to set up its first homeopathy college

The official communication has further clarified that admission of students for the 2026-27 academic session will be permitted only if the Central Government grants permission or recognition for renewal of the BDS degree. Any deviation from this guideline will be treated as irregular and action may be taken under the provisions of the Dentists Act, 1948 and the relevant regulations.

On this, speaking to NortheastToday, a senior health official from Tripura said that “This renewal not only ensures academic continuity for our dental students but also underlines the importance of maintaining regulatory compliance in medical education,”.

Medical Dialogues had earlier reported that the Dental Council of India (DCI) approved the Tripura government’s start of the Master of Dental Surgery (MDS) programme in the Agartala Government Dental College (AGDC).

Speaking on the MDS approval, Chief Minister Dr Manik Saha stated, “Though I am the Chief Minister, I didn’t forget my roots as a dental surgeon. I have no hesitation to confess that there is a desperate need to improve the health service further. We bring a major change in the service delivery system. We had never thought of opening a dental college, but we did it”

Also Read: Tripura Allocates Rs 100 Crore for New Eye Hospital

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JIPMER has No Provision for 10-day Family Vacation to MBBS, PG medicos as recommended by Task Force, reveals RTI

Pondicherry: Despite the National Task Force on Mental Health and Well-being of Medical Students recommending a 10-day family vacation for MBBS and postgraduate medical students, till now no such provision is available at Jawaharlal Institute of Postgraduate Medical Education and Research (JIPMER), revealed a Right to Information (RTI) application.

Filing the RTI, the National President of the United Doctors’ Front (UDF), Dr. Lakshya Mittal raised the issue of family vacation. He pointed out the recommendations made by the National Task Force stating that medical colleges could consider granting a ten-day vacation at least once a year to both undergraduate and postgraduate medical students on a rotational basis. 

Medical Dialogues had earlier reported that in its report, the Task Force mentioned, “Medical colleges could consider granting a ten-day vacation at least once a year to both undergraduate and postgraduate medical students on a rotational basis. This break is aimed at fostering family bonding. Addressing family-related stressors identified in surveys and discussions, this vacation ensures students return refreshed and better able to focus on their academic responsibilities.”

“However, this vacation should not interfere with completing the mandatory syllabus, clinical training, lab work, thesis, and curriculum. Any such interference will result in the mandatory training as per NMC guidelines taking precedence,” it further added.

Referring to this, Dr. Mittal in this RTI application sought to know about the action taken to comply with this suggestion till date, to include this provision for 10 days family vacation in PGMER 2023 for implementation of this suggestion.

Also Read: Mental well-being of doctors: Here are NMC’s complete recommendations

He also referred to Point 5.5 specifying the leave rules in PGMER 2023 and pointed out that as per these rules, every PG student will be given minimum 20 days of paid leave (casual leave) per year and academic paid leave of 5 days per year. He mentioned that despite such clear rules, many institutes are not following these rules. In this regard, he sought the information with related documents regarding action taken for implementation of the leave rules. Further, he sought to know the details of any action taken for violating the leave rules causing mental health issues to the students.

In response, JIPMER informed that undergraduate students are granted 30 days of vacation and 10-14 days of study leave every year. “Only 75% of attendance is mandatory to appear in the exam,” the institute added.

Further providing the details of leave granted to Academic Junior and Senior Residents (MD/MS/MDS and DM/MCh), JIPMER informed that Junior Residents are given 30 days of leave during first year, and 36 days of leave each in 2nd and 3rd year of their study. The days of leaves granted to the Senior Residents during their 1st, 2nd and 3rd year is 24 days, 36 days and 36 days respectively.

Apart from this, the institute informed that as academic leave (over 3 year), the JRs are given 9 days and SRs are given 7 days. The duration of maternity and paternity leave (SRs), granted as JIPMER, is 6 months and 15 days respectively.

Commenting on the matter, Dr. Mittal told Medical Dialogues, “An RTI filed by me has revealed that despite the recommendation in NMC- National Task Force Report to provide a 10-day family vacation to both undergraduate and postgraduate medical students, no such provision has been implemented yet at JIPMER, Puducherry—an Institute of National Importance under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.”

“According to the reply, undergraduate students get 30 days of vacation and 10–14 days of study leave per year, while PG residents have a structured leave format. However, the suggested 10-day family vacation aimed at promoting mental well-being and family bonding has not been incorporated, and many institutions continue to ignore NMC’s leave regulations. This issue again highlights the widening gap between policy and implementation,” he added.

“It’s high time for regulatory bodies and medical institutions to prioritize the mental health and work-life balance of medical students and resident doctors,” Dr. Mittal further mentioned.

Medical Dialogues had earlier reported that the final Post-Graduate Medical Education Regulations, 2023 (PGMER 2023), which were published in the official Gazette on 29.12.2023, lay down the rules and regulations regarding admission, counselling, and other details related to the postgraduate medical courses.

As per the leave rules, specified in PGMER 2023, the PG students will be given leave as per the following rules:

a. Every post-graduate student will be given minimum 20 days of paid leave (casual leave) per year.

b. Subject to exigencies of work, post-graduate students will be allowed one weekly holiday.

c. Female post-graduate students shall be allowed maternity leave as per existing Government rules and regulations.

d. Male post-graduate students shall be allowed paternity leave as per existing Government rules and regulations.

e. In addition to 20 days’ paid leave, the candidates will be allowed academic paid leave of 5 days per year.

Further, the regulations mentioned that if a “candidate avails leave in excess of the permitted number of days, his/her term of course shall be extended by the same number of days to complete the training period. However, one shall be able to appear in the examination if one has 80% (eighty per cent) of the attendance.”

Also Read: 20 days of Paid leave, weekly offs, reasonable working hours for PG medicos: NMC PGMER 2023

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Himachal allocates Rs 193.75 crore for 2 New Critical Care Blocks

Shimla: To strengthen the healthcare infrastructure and improve access to quality and affordable healthcare to the people of the State, the Government has allocated Rs 193.75 crore for the establishment of two Critical Care Blocks (CCBs) and five District Integrated Public Health Laboratories (DIPHLs) across the State.

In a recent cabinet meeting, the government approved the setting up of a 50-bedded Critical Care Block (CCB) at Primary Health Centre Swahan (Regional Hospital Bilaspur) and another 50-bedded CCB at Civil Hospital Rohru, Shimla district. These facilities will be equipped with advanced medical infrastructure including Emergency Services, Intensive Care Units (ICUs), High Dependency Units (HDUs), Isolation Beds, Dialysis Units, Labour Rooms, Operation Theatres and Point-of-Care Laboratories.

Each CCB will be integrated with the existing district hospital and will function as a regular facility under normal conditions. However, during health emergencies or outbreaks such as COVID-19, they can be physically isolated to ensure strict infection control. Each block will be constructed at a cost of Rs. 16.63 crore and equipment cost of Rs. 27.12 crore. 

Also Read:Himachal Pradesh Restructures Health Cadres

In addition, the cabinet has also approved the establishment of District Integrated Public Health Laboratories (DIPHLs) at Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru Government Medical College Chamba and District Hospital Hamirpur attached with Dr Radha Krishnan Government Medical College Hamirpur. These DIPHLs are aimed at improving diagnostic capabilities, enabling rapid testing and supporting effective outbreak management.

Each laboratory will be fully equipped with Clinical Pathology, Hematology, Cytology, Biochemistry, and Microbiology facilities under one roof to enhance efficiency and avoid resource duplication.

Every DIPHL will have a team of experts comprising of one Pathologist, one Microbiologist, one Biochemist, eleven Lab Technicians, one Data Entry Operator, and two Sanitation workers. The capital cost per DIPHL will be Rs. 21.25 crore with an annual recurring cost of Rs. 49.05 lakh per unit.

Furthermore, the cabinet has also approved the procurement of equipments for the under-construction Mother and Child Hospital wings of Kamla Nehru Hospital Shimla, Regional Hospital Una and Civil Hospital Sundernagar of Mandi district.

Also Read:New Nephrology, Neurology departments to be set up at Hamirpur Medical College

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GSK Arexvy recommended for adults aged 50-59 at increased risk for severe RSV disease by US Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices

GSK plc has announced that the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices (ACIP) voted in favour of recommending the use of RSV vaccines including GSK’s Arexvy (Respiratory Syncytial Virus Vaccine, Adjuvanted) in adults aged 50-59 who are at increased risk for severe RSV disease.

This includes people with conditions like COPD, asthma, diabetes, heart disease and those in residential care. This expands on ACIP’s previous vote in June 2024 to recommend RSV vaccines for adults aged 60-74 who are at increased risk and all adults aged 75 and older.

A systematic review of studies in the US shows that RSV is estimated to cause 42,000 hospitalisations each year in adults aged 50-64 years old. Adults with underlying medical conditions, such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), asthma, heart failure and diabetes are at increased risk from severe consequences from an RSV infection compared to those without these conditions. RSV can exacerbate these conditions and lead to pneumonia, hospitalisation, or death.

Tony Wood, Chief Scientific Officer, GSK said, “We are pleased with ACIP’s recommendation to expand the benefits of RSV immunisation to more than 13 million adults aged 50-59 who are at increased risk for the severe consequences of this virus. RSV can have a significant impact for those with underlying medical conditions. We look forward to helping protect more people with RSV vaccination.”

In making its recommendation, the ACIP considered positive results from a phase III trial [NCT05590403]6 evaluating the immune response and safety of GSK’s RSV vaccine in adults aged 50-59, including those at increased risk for RSV-LRTD due to certain underlying medical conditions compared to older adults aged 60 years and above where efficacy has been demonstrated after a single dose of GSK’s RSV vaccine.

The ACIP recommendations will be forwarded for review and approval. Once approved, the final recommendations will be published to advise healthcare providers on appropriate use of the vaccine and to inform insurance coverage.

Respiratory Syncytial Virus Vaccine, Adjuvanted, contains recombinant RSV glycoprotein F stabilised in the prefusion conformation (RSVPreF3). This antigen is combined with GSK’s proprietary AS01E adjuvant.

The vaccine has been approved for the prevention of RSV-LRTD in individuals 60 years of age and older in 61 countries, including Europe, Japan and US. In addition, it is approved in the US, EU/EEA countries and Japan for use in individuals aged 50-59 who are at increased risk for lower respiratory disease caused by RSV due to certain underlying medical conditions. Regulatory reviews for this extended indication are ongoing in other countries.

The use of this vaccine should be in accordance with official recommendations. As with any vaccine, a protective immune response may not be elicited in all vaccinees.

The GSK proprietary AS01 adjuvant system contains STIMULON QS-21 adjuvant licensed from Antigenics Inc, a wholly owned subsidiary of Agenus Inc. STIMULON is a trademark of SaponiQx Inc., a subsidiary of Agenus.

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AIIMS Delhi Ranks 97th among World’s Best Hospitals in 2024, PGIMER and Medanta also featured

Altogether, three hospitals in India- the All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS), Delhi, Post Graduate Institute of Medical Sciences and Research (PGIMER), Chandigarh, and Medanta-the Medicity in Gurgaon have been recognised among the top 250 best hospitals across the world.

Newsweek and Statista, in their “World’s Best Hospitals 2025” report, have recognised AIIMS, New Delhi, as the 97th best hospital in the world. Back in 2023, AIIMS earned the 122nd rank in the same report. Its position was further improved in 2024, when AIIMS ranked 113th in the list. Now the institute has moved up 16 spots as it has earned the 97th rank in the list.

For more information, click on the link below:

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