Glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor Agonists can effectively control Alcohol Use Disorder, finds study

A recent study found that glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor
(GLP-1) agonists like semaglutide and liraglutide are effective in reducing
hospitalization due to alcohol use disorder (AUD) as per a trial that was
published in the journal JAMA Psychiatry.

Harmful use of alcohol is a global burden both economically
and healthcare-wise. Psychological treatments are the main line of management
of this. However, pharmacological management can also be used to reduce the
harmful usage of alcohol. Research shows that Glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor
(GLP-1) agonists that are used to treat diabetes and obesity can also be used to
treat alcohol use disorder. Hence researchers conducted a study to investigate
the potential of GLP-1 agonists as a treatment for reducing alcohol-related
harms.

This observational cohort study used real-world data from
Swedish registries. The data was collected from registers of inpatient care,
specialized outpatient care, sickness absence, and disability pension.
Participants were all residents aged 16 to 64 with a diagnosis of AUD. A cohort
of 227 886 individuals were followed up from AUD diagnosis to death,
emigration, or end of data linkage. The main exposure was GLP-1 agonists, which
were exenatide, liraglutide, dulaglutide, and semaglutide. The secondary
exposure was the use of AUD medications. Hospitalization due to AUD was the
primary outcome of measurement while hospitalization due to substance use
disorder, somatic reasons, and suicide attempts was the secondary outcome of
measurement. Cox regression models with fixed effects were used to calculate
the within-individual risk of an outcome associated with use vs nonuse of
pharmacotherapies.

Findings:

  • The cohort included 227 866 individuals with AUD
    of which 144 714 (63.5%) were male and the remaining (36.5%) were female.
  • The cohort’s mean (SD) age was 40.0 (15.7)
    years, and the median (IQR) follow-up time was 8.8 (4.0-13.3) years.
  • A total of 133 210 individuals (58.5%)
    experienced AUD hospitalization.
  • Semaglutide (4321 users) and liraglutide (2509
    users) were associated with the lowest risk of both AUD and SUD
    hospitalization.
  • AUD medications were associated with a modestly
    decreased risk.
  • Semaglutide and liraglutide use were also
    associated with a decreased risk of somatic hospitalizations but not associated
    with suicide attempts.

Thus, the study concluded that semaglutide and liraglutide
were associated with a substantially decreased risk of hospitalization due to
AUD and can be effectively used in the management of alcohol use disorder.

Further reading: Lähteenvuo M, Tiihonen J, Solismaa
A, Tanskanen A, Mittendorfer-Rutz E, Taipale H. Repurposing
Semaglutide and Liraglutide for Alcohol Use Disorder. JAMA Psychiatry. Published
online November 13, 2024. doi:10.1001/jamapsychiatry.2024.3599

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Serum lactate level potential predictor for ICU admissions in patients presenting with seizure at ED: Study

A recent study published in the journal of Internal and Emergency Medicine highlighted the significance of serum lactate levels as a potential predictor for intensive care unit (ICU) admission in patients presenting with seizures at the emergency department (ED). This retrospective cohort study looked forward to fill a gap in existing research by assessing if serum lactate could help foresee the need for ICU care in these patients.

The study analyzed the records of 288 adult patients, all aged 18 or older, who were diagnosed with seizures or convulsive status epilepticus at the ED and had their serum venous lactate levels tested. Out of this group, 45 patients (15.63%) required admission to the ICU. The primary goal was to identify clinical factors that were independently predictive of such admissions.

The research employed logistic regression analysis to assess the data and identify predictors. 2 main factors were found to be significant indicators for ICU admission:

  • Convulsive Status Epilepticus: The patients presenting with this severe form of seizure were found to be at notably higher risk for ICU admission, with an adjusted odds ratio of 4.793 (95% confidence interval: 2.119, 10.844).
  • Serum Lactate Levels: Elevated serum lactate levels also correlated with increased likelihood of ICU admission. For every 1 mg/dL increase in serum lactate, the adjusted odds ratio was 1.008 (95% confidence interval: 1.001, 1.016).

The study determined that a serum lactate threshold of over 63 mg/dL provided a specificity of 80.25% for predicting ICU admissions, despite the sensitivity being lower at 35.56%. The area under the receiver operating characteristic (ROC) curve was calculated at 63.30% (with a 95% confidence interval ranging from 54.77% to 71.84%) which indicated moderate predictive performance.

These findings suggest that serum lactate could serve as a practical, early marker for evaluating the need for more intensive monitoring and treatment in seizure patients at the ED. The high specificity associated with a lactate level over 63 mg/dL meant that while the marker is less sensitive and it is reliable in ruling in the need for ICU care when elevated. Also, convulsive status epilepticus remains a significant factor necessitating critical intervention. Overall, the results from this study highlight the utility of serum lactate as part of the broader assessment strategy for ED patients who were presenting with seizures.

Reference:

Phungoen, P., Khamsai, S., Chotmongkol, V., Daungjunchot, R., Sawanyawisuth, K., & Tangpaisarn, T. (2024). Serum lactate is associated with an ICU admission in patients presenting with seizure at the emergency department. In Internal and Emergency Medicine. Springer Science and Business Media LLC. https://doi.org/10.1007/s11739-024-03806-1

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Trans-epithelial phototherapeutic keratectomy safe and effective procedure for Recurrent Corneal Erosion Syndrome: Study

A recent groundbreaking study
revealed that trans-epithelial phototherapeutic keratectomy (TE-PTK) is safe
and efficient for the treatment of recurrent corneal erosion syndrome (RCES)
and resistant RCES cases as per a study that was published in the journal Graefe’s
Archive for Clinical and Experimental Ophthalmology.

Recurrent corneal erosion
syndrome (RCES) is a painful eye condition frequently caused by mechanical
trauma and characterized by abnormal epithelial adhesion to the underlying
basal lamina. This condition leads to recurrent epithelial breakdown and
impairs vision causing severe pain. Conservative treatments include the use of topical
lubricants, topical hypertonic saline, and/or bandage contact lenses while
invasive approaches include mechanical debridement, alcohol delamination of the
epithelium, and excimer laser phototherapeutic keratectomy (PTK). As there is
ambiguity in the various treatment approaches for the management of RCES and
the use of phototherapeutic keratectomy (PTK), researchers conducted a retrospective
study to examine the long-term safety and efficacy of transepithelial PTK for
the management of RCES that is resistant to conservative management.

A retrospective study was carried
out on 593 consecutive eyes in individuals resistant to conservative
measures. Individuals who received TE-PTK treatment and failed at 3 or
more conventional treatments like
Topical lubricants, Topical hypertonic saline, Topical steroid eye drops, Oral
doxycycline for ≥ 3 months, and Bandage contact lenses for ≥ 2 weeks
were included. A telephone survey was used to gather the required information
by using questionnaires for basic demographic information and PTK therapies. Preoperative
assessment was done by using the Corrected distance visual acuity (CDVA). The
surgical procedure was carried out by using The SCHWIND Custom Ablation Manager
(SCHWIND eye-tech solutions GmbH, Kleinostheim, Germany) set in transepithelial
PTK mode. The protocol included ablating 50 microns for epithelial removal and
15 microns of subepithelial treatment. Standard post-operative follow-up was
carried out. The Kaplan–Meier survival analysis was done to calculate the
cumulative recurrence-free survival after treatment.

Findings:

  • This study included 593 eyes of 555 patients
    (46.2% male; 50.9 ± 14.2 years old) who underwent TE-PTK.
  • The leading identified causes of RCES were
    trauma (45.7%) and anterior basement membrane dystrophy (44.2%).
  • The most common pre-PTK interventions were
    ocular lubricants (90.9%), hypertonic solutions (77.9%), and bandage contact
    lenses (50.9%).
  • Thirty-six eyes had undergone surgical
    interventions such as stromal puncture, epithelial debridement, or diamond burr
    polishing.
  • Post-PTK, 78% of patients did not require any
    subsequent therapies and 20% required ongoing drops.
  • Six patients (1.1%) reported no symptom
    improvement and were required to repeat TE-PTK for ongoing RCES symptoms after the
    initial TE-PTK.
  • All 6 eyes were successfully retreated with
    TE-PTK (average time to retreatment was 11.3 ± 14.9 months).
  • There was no significant difference in best
    corrected visual acuity pre- vs. post-operatively. The mean postoperative
    follow-up was 60.5 months (range: 5–127 months).

Thus, the researchers concluded
that TE-PTK showed a high efficacy and safety profile and can be used as
a preferred treatment option for patients with RCES resistant to standard
treatments. The treatment showed a low recurrence rate and low rates of
retreatments. The researchers also suggested that TE-PTK can be considered for
broader application in resistant RCES based on cost-effectiveness and patient
satisfaction.

Further reading: Bizrah M,
Shunmugam M, Ching G, et al. Transepithelial phototherapeutic keratectomy for
treatment-resistant recurrent corneal erosion syndrome. Graefes Arch
Clin Exp Ophthalmol
. 2024;262(10):3253-3260. doi:10.1007/s00417-024-06482-1

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Nanohydroxyapatite serum effective remineralizing agent after interproximal reduction, reports study

A study published in the American Journal of Orthodontics and Dentofacial Orthopedics reported that nanohydroxyapatite serum is an effective remineralizing agent after interproximal reduction.

Interproximal reduction (IPR) damages the caries’ protective superficial layer of the enamel, making the enamel surface prone to caries because of the increase in surface roughness. Remineralizing solutions can help in preventing these undesirable side effects. Therefore, this study aimed to compare the effect of nanohydroxyapatite (nHAp) and sodium fluoride (NaF) application on enamel remineralization after IPR and to evaluate changes in surface roughness, composition, and microhardness of the treated enamel. A total of 25 patients with Angle’s Class I malocclusion, requiring 4 premolar extractions, were selected and randomly divided into 5 groups (n = 5). Group 1 served as the control. In group 2, the extraction of premolars was done immediately after IPR, and in group 3, the extraction of premolars was done 3 months after IPR. In group 4, the extraction of premolars was performed 3 months after IPR with weekly application of nHAp serum. In group 5, the extraction of premolars was performed 3 months after IPR, along with once-a-month application of NaF varnish. The proximal reduction of premolars in all the groups was done using Strauss IPR burs (Strauss Diamond Instruments, Palm Coast, Fla). The extracted teeth were sectioned, and the enamel surfaces were subjected to energy-dispersive X-ray spectroscopy to evaluate elemental composition. Vicker’s microhardness test was used to evaluate enamel hardness and atomic force microscopy for enamel surface roughness. Descriptive statistics were calculated for the 5 groups using a 1-way analysis of variance, and Tukey’s multiple post-hoc test was used for intergroup comparison. Results: Calcium-to-phosphorous ratio, enamel microhardness, and surface roughness were found to be closest to untouched enamel in patients treated with nHAp, followed by patients who were treated with NaF. A lower calcium-to-phosphorous ratio and weakened and roughest enamel surface was seen in teeth, which were extracted immediately after IPR. Among the remineralizing agents tested, nHAp serum can be recommended for better remineralization of enamel surfaces after IPR.

Reference:

Dussa S, C S, Kiran Kumar P, Saritha T. Qualitative and quantitative evaluation of enamel surface roughness and remineralization after interproximal reduction: An in vivo study. Am J Orthod Dentofacial Orthop. 2024 Jun 8:S0889-5406(24)00200-2. doi: 10.1016/j.ajodo.2024.05.009. Epub ahead of print. PMID: 38852104.

Keywords:

Nanohydroxyapatite, serum, effective, remineralizing, agent, after, interproximal, reduction, reports, study, Dussa S, C S, Kiran Kumar P, Saritha T, American Journal of Orthodontics and Dentofacial Orthopedics

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Pregabalin Significantly Reduces Pain and Itch in Recessive Dystrophic Epidermolysis Bullosa: JAMA

Researchers have found pregabalin highly effective in reducing neuropathic pain and itch in recessive dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa (RDEB), the most prevalent and debilitating form of epidermolysis bullosa (EB), a rare skin disorder. A recent study was conducted by Calvo and colleagues published in JAMA Dematology.

RDEB is a generalized form of EB, with delicate skin that blisters and heals with chronic wounds. Neuropathic pain and pruritus are often documented as severely impacting quality of life. Current treatments offer only incomplete relief, and scarce evidence has been available to guide the management of these disabling symptoms. Pregabalin is a drug already approved for neuropathic pain and may also prove helpful in this indication.

The objective of this study was to investigate the efficacy of oral pregabalin in the adjunctive treatment of neuropathic pain and itching in patients with RDEB. It was hypothesized that treatment with pregabalin would be significantly more effective at relieving symptoms than a placebo.

This is a randomized, double-blinded, crossover trial conducted at two sites, Toronto, Canada, and Santiago, Chile from January 2019 through December 2020. The participants should be aged 8 to 40 years with diagnosed RDEB experiencing neuropathic pain and itch. The inclusion criteria were having a score of 4 or greater on the Douleur Neuropathique 4 (DN4) questionnaire and scoring greater than 4 on the VAS for pain or itch. Patients with poorly controlled medical conditions or allergies to pregabalin were excluded.

Pre-therapy screening of all patients and then random allocation to two groups of thirty in each. Group 1 was treated first with pregabalin followed by a placebo, and group 2 was given a placebo first followed by pregabalin. The dose limit of pregabalin was 300 mg/day. The effectiveness of treatment was assessed in terms of VAS scores for pain and itch before and after therapy.

  • Ten patients were recruited in the study with a mean age of around 26.6 years in both the groups.

  • Pregabalin decreased mean pain scores by 1.9 points whereas in case of placebo, it decreased by 0.1 points.

  • In comparison to the baseline, the decrease in mean was 0.9 points; on the other hand, the placebo group showed minimal reduction of 0.1 points.

  • Generally, the tolerance of pregabalin by participants was good. No major adverse effects were encountered.

Pregabalin operates by the modulation of calcium channels within the central nervous system to block the release of certain neurotransmitters that cause pain. With RDEB, the antineuropathic pain property of pregabalin has made this drug a possible candidate for the management of chronic discomfort associated with this disease.

This study demonstrated that pregabalin considerably reduced pain and itch. The results provide renewed optimism for patients with RDEB, based on preliminary evidence that pregabalin may serve as a treatment for the neuropathic symptoms inherent to the disease; further investigation is necessary to formally confirm these results and ascertain long-term benefits of pregabalin in this patient population.

Reference:

Calvo, M., Tejos-Bravo, M., Passi-Solar, A., Espinoza, F., Fuentes, I., Lara-Corrales, I., & Pope, E. (2024). Pregabalin for neuropathic pain and itch in recessive dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa: A randomized crossover trial. JAMA Dermatology (Chicago, Ill.). https://doi.org/10.1001/jamadermatol.2024.3767

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Doctor challenges Rs 30 lakh seat leaving bond penalty citing mental health concerns, HC issues notice

Indore: While considering a doctor’s plea challenging Rs 30 lakh seat leaving bond citing mental health concerns, the Indore bench of the Madhya Pradesh High Court sought to know the stand of the State Government in this regard. At the time of getting admission to Mahatma Gandhi Memorial Medical College, Indore, the petitioner doctor had executed the Rs 30 lakh bond, which would be charged if he left the seat without completing the course. The seat leaving bond conditions further specified that without paying the seat leaving bond penalty, the students would not be able to get back his original documents.

In August this year, the ‘National Task Force on Mental Health and Well-being of Medical Students’, set up by the National Medical Commission (NMC) opined in its report that seat-leaving bonds and compulsory rural service bonds should be abolished. As an alternative to the seat-leaving bond, the Task Force has suggested prohibiting such students from applying to medical colleges for twenty-four months from the date of leaving.

NMC Anti-Ragging Committee had set up the National Task Force to study existing literature and data on the mental health of medical students and propose evidence-based strategies for improving the same.

However, this bond condition has now been challenged by the doctor before the MP High Court Division bench of Chief Justice Suresh Kumar Kait and Justice Sushrut Dharmadhikari, and the Court while issuing notice to the authorities including the State Government, also directed the medical college to return the doctor’s original documents and give a no objection certificate.

“The respondent No.3 is directed to return the original documents along with No Objection Certificate to the petitioner before 18.11.2024 on due acknowledgement and the same shall remain subject to final outcome of the writ petition,” ordered the HC bench on 14.11.2024.

Also Read: Rural Posting allotted 1.5 yrs after completing MBBS! HC issues notice as Doctor challenges Rs 25 lakh bond penalty

As per the latest media report by Live Law, filing the plea, the petitioner student challenged Rule 15(1) (Kha) Madhya Pradesh Chikitsa Shiksha Pravesh Niyam (2018), under which a person needs to pay Rs 30 lakh seat leaving penalty to the college if he/she leaves the seat allotted to him.

The matter concerns Dr. Mashih who was admitted to the MS Orthopaedics course at Mahatma Gandhi Memorial Medical College, Indore back in 2020. During his residency, he allegedly faced several issues and due to this, he developed mental health concerns. It was claimed by the petitioner that the working hours stretched up to 72 hours and he was asked to work continuously without taking any breaks and without any sleep or rest.

Live Law has reported that the petitioner student claimed that such treatment by the senior doctors to the junior residents was nothing but another form of ragging that pushed students like him to want to leave their seats.

It was further submitted that even though repeated pleas were submitted to the administration for making adjustments, no relief was granted to him. He also claimed that even though he tried to resume the course in 2022, he was forced to discontinue the course again due to deteriorating health conditions.

When the petitioner did not pay the Rs 30 lakh seat leaving bond, the college retained his original documents. Due to this, the petitioner could not access his documents and apply for other job opportunities or education options.

Filing the plea, the petitioner stated that the National Medical Commission (NMC) in January 2024 had recommended that the seat-leaving bonds should be discontinued since they were affecting the mental health of the medical students. The petitioner pointed out that even though the bond requirement was removed for the upcoming batches, the ones before 2024 still came under the purview of the policy and affected the petitioner also.

The petitioner prayed before the Court to declare Rule 15(1) (kha) of Madhya Pradesh Chikitsa Shiksha Pravesh Niyam 2018 as ultra vires to Article 14 & 19(1) (g) of the Constitution of India. It also sought a direction to the medical college to return original documents and give NOC to the petitioner students.

Medical Dialogues had reported that earlier this year while considering a similar case, the Principal bench of Madhya Pradesh had granted interim relief to a doctor and asked the MGM Medical College, Indore to return original documents to her without payment of the Rs 30 lakh seat-leaving bond penalty.

To view the HC order in the recent case, click on the link below:

https://medicaldialogues.in/pdf_upload/dr-abhishek-masih-vs-the-state-of-madhya-pradesh-and-others-571740-261414.pdf

Also Read: HC Grants Interim Relief to Doctor from Rs 30 Lakh Seat Leaving Bond penalty, MGM Indore told to Return Original Documents

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PG medical admissions 2024 process begins in Kerala! Know fee structure for govt, private medical colleges

Kerala- The Commissioner of Entrance Examinations (CEE) has begun the centralised allotment of the first phase of Post Graduate Medical Degree Courses for the year 2024. In the recent notice, the CEE has released the fee structure for PG medical admissions at government and private medical colleges in the state.

As per the notification in this regard, all the eligible Candidates included in the Kerala State Merit list who have applied for admission to PG Medical Courses 2024 in the State can register their options online through the CEE official website before 23 November 2024, 5.00 PM. To register the options, the candidate has to click on ‘PG Medical 2024-Candidate Portal’ available on the official website of CEE and enter their application number and password to access their home page. Candidates can register their options online by clicking on the menu ‘Options Registration’ available on the home page.

SCHEDULE FOR THE ALLOTMENT

S.NO

DATES

PARTICULARS

1

18 November 2024.

Opening of the option registration facility.

2

23 November 2024, 5.00 PM.

Closing of option registration facility.

3

25 November 2024.`

Provisional Allotment

4

26 November 2024.

Final Allotment

5

28 November 2024 to 04 December 2024, 4.00 PM.

Joining the allotted college

Meanwhile, a security deposit of Rs. 10,000/- will have to be paid at the time of option registration. For SC/ST/OEC and other candidates who are eligible for fee concession Rs.5000/- will have to be paid as a security deposit. The security deposit will be refunded to the eligible candidates after the completion of the entire counselling process.

Fee Structure

S.NO

COLLEGE NAME

TUITION FEE

GOVERNMENT MEDICAL COLLEGES & RCC

1

Govt.Medical College, Thiruvananthapuram.

Rs 57,890/-

2

Govt.Medical College,Kottayam.

Rs 57,890/-

3

Govt.MedicalCollege,Alappuzha.

Rs 57,890/-

4

Govt.Medical College, Thrissur.

Rs 57,890/-

5

Govt.Medical College, Kozhikode.

Rs 57,890/-

6

Govt.MedicalCollege,Kannur.

Rs 57,890/-

7

Govt.MedicalCollege,Ernakulam.

Rs 57,890/-

8

Govt.MedicalCollege,Kollam.

Rs 57,890/-

9

Govt.MedicalCollege,Manjeri.

Rs 57,890/-

10

RCC, Thiruvananthapuram.

Rs 57,890/-

S.NO

COLLEGE NAME

CLINICAL (RS).

NON CLINICAL (RS).

NRI (RS).

SELF-FINANCING MEDICAL COLLEGES

1

Amala IMC, Thrissur.

Rs 18,49,748/-

Rs 11,23,062/-

Rs 38,86,680/-

2

Azeezia IMCR, Kollam.

Rs 18,49,748/-

Rs 11,23,062/-

Rs 38,86,680/-

3

Al-Azhar Medical College, Thodupuzha.

Rs 18,49,748/-

Rs 11,23,062/-

Rs 38,86,680/-

4

Dr.Somervell CSIMC, Karakonam.

Rs 18,49,748/-

Rs 11,23,062/-

Rs 38,86,680/-

5

Dr.Moopens Medical College, Wayanad.

Rs 18,49,748/-

Rs 11,23,062/-

Rs 38,86,680/-

6

Jubilee Mission Medical College, Thrissur.

Rs 18,49,748/-

Rs 11,23,062/-

Rs 38,86,680/-

7

Pushpagiri IMS &RC, Thiruvalla.

Rs 18,49,748/-

Rs 11,23,062/-

Rs 38,86,680/-

8

Malankara OSCMC, Kolencherry.

Rs 18,49,748/-

Rs 11,23,062/-

Rs 38,86,680/-

9

MES MC, Malappuram.

Rs 18,49,748/-

Rs 11,23,062/-

Rs 38,86,680/-

10

Sree Narayana IMS, Ernakulam.

Rs 18,49,748/-

Rs 11,23,062/-

Rs 38,86,680/-

11

Travancore MC, Kollam.

Rs 18,49,748/-

Rs 11,23,062/-

Rs 38,86,680/-

12

Believers Church MCH, Thiruvalla.

Rs 18,49,748/-

Rs 11,23,062/-

Rs 38,86,680/-

13

KMCT Medical College, Kozhikode.

Rs 18,49,748/-

Rs 11,23,062/-

Rs 38,86,680/-

14

Malabar MC, Kozhikode.

Rs 18,49,748/-

Rs 11,23,062/-

Rs 38,86,680/-

15

PK Das IMS, Palakkad.

Rs 18,49,748/-

Rs 11,23,062/-

Rs 38,86,680/-

16

SreeGokulam MC & Research.

Rs 18,49,748/-

Rs 11,23,062/-

Rs 38,86,680/-

17

Mount Zion Medical College.

Rs 18,49,748/-

Rs 11,23,062/-

Rs 38,86,680/-

18

SUT Academy of Medical Sciences

Rs 18,49,748/-

Rs 11,23,062/-

Rs 38,86,680/-

The list of Medical Colleges/Courses to which the Commissioner for Entrance Examinations makes allotment is provided on the Home page of the candidate. Candidates can give options as per their priority of the CourseCollege combinations in the option list. A candidate need only give options to a Course-College combination if he/she is sure to join the course and college, under the chosen quota, if allotted. Options registered online alone will be considered for allotment to the courses. Options sent to the Office of the Commissioner for Entrance Examinations via Post/Fax/E-mail will not be processed/considered for allotment to the courses.

Candidates who seek admission under the Minority/NRI quota in Self Financing Medical Colleges shall have to register options online to the desired courses/colleges in this first phase itself. Candidates who do not register options shall not be considered for allotment under the Minority/NRI quota even if they are included in the respective category lists.

Candidates are requested to go through the relevant clauses in the Prospectus with regard to the Centralised Allotment Process before registering options. The Eligible candidates, who are included in the Kerala State Merit List prepared by the CEE can register options in the first phase of counselling. The allotments will be strictly based on the options exercised, the rank obtained and the eligible reservations of the candidate. Candidates should register options only to those courses and colleges which they are sure to join on allotment.

In the second phase of counselling, there is no facility for fresh option registration for the candidates. Only option confirmation/deletion/rearrangement of the existing options in phase 2 is possible. Option confirmation is compulsory to participate in phase 2. Option registration will be available only to those courses which are newly added to the list at the second stage. If a candidate is allotted a seat in the first phase and joins the allotted seat, his/her higher options will be retained and all those options listed below the allotted option will automatically be deleted thus enabling only upgradation/retention in the same seat. If a candidate joined in a seat in phase 1 does not confirm option in phase 2 he will not be considered for upgradation in phase 2, but the seat joined in phase 1, if any, will be retained. So if a candidate joined in round 1 does not want upgradation in phase 2, he/she may not confirm options or delete all options registered.

After the 2nd Phase allotment, vacancies that exist or arise shall be filled in the 3rd round allotment. There is a facility for fresh option registration in 3rd round.

After the 3rd Phase allotment, if any vacancies exist or arise, those vacancies shall be filled through Stray vacancy allotment.

When a seat is allotted in a particular phase based on the valid options registered by the candidate, previous admission, if any, will stand cancelled irrespective of whether the new allotment is going to be accepted or not accepted by the candidate.

IMPORTANT POINTS

1 The allotment to Colleges/Courses will be subject to recognition of All India Regulatory Bodies/Affiliation from the Universities concerned.

2 Seat matrix will be published when the Government approves the same.

3 Those candidates whose positions in the Merit List have been withheld due to various reasons can also register their online options for allotment. But the options submitted by such candidates be considered for allotment only if they rectify or clear the defects before 4.00 PM on 23 November 2024 and otherwise eligible.

To view the notification, click the link below

https://medicaldialogues.in/pdf_upload/cee-261379.pdf

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Dead patient’s eye missing at Patna hospital, 2 nurses suspended for negligence

In a shocking incident, hours after a man succumbed to bullet injuries at Patna’s Nalanda Medical College and Hospital (NMCH), his eye was found missing. This sparked a protest by the family inside the hospital, who accused the staff of medical negligence.

Doctors at Nalanda Medical College and Hospital (NMCH) suspect that rats may have gnawed the eye of a man, while the deceased’s family has raised serious concerns, accusing the hospital staff of foul play.

For more information, click on the link below:

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AbbVie gets European Commission nod for Elahere for Platinum-Resistant ovarian cancer

North Chicago: AbbVie has announced the European Commission (EC) has granted marketing authorization for ELAHERE (mirvetuximab soravtansine) for the treatment of adult patients with folate receptor-alpha (FRα) positive, platinum-resistant high grade serous epithelial ovarian, fallopian tube or primary peritoneal cancer who have received one to three prior systemic treatment regimens. ELAHERE is a folate receptor alpha (FRɑ)-directed antibody drug conjugate (ADC) medicine approved in the European Union (EU), as well as Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway, and Northern Ireland.

“It’s been 10 years since a new treatment for platinum-resistant ovarian cancer was approved in the EU, and now oncologists have an effective, new, targeted treatment option for these patients,” said Toon Van Gorp, Professor of Gynaecological Oncology at the University of Leuven.

Ovarian cancer is one of the leading causes of death from gynecological cancers worldwide.i Most patients present with late-stage disease and will typically undergo surgery followed by platinum-based chemotherapy. Unfortunately, most patients eventually develop platinum-resistant disease. Historically, treatment options for patients with platinum-resistant ovarian cancer (PROC) have been limited, and those available often result in adverse events which can negatively impact quality of life.

“Ovarian cancer can be devastating, taking women away from precious moments with their family, disrupting careers and the many other important contributions that women make to society,” said Clara Mackay, CEO, World Ovarian Cancer Coalition. “In Europe, ovarian cancer is three times more deadly than breast cancer, and having new innovative options allows us to work toward a world where everyone living with ovarian cancer has the best chance of survival and the best quality of life possible, no matter where they live.”

In approximately one third of people living with ovarian cancer, the folate-receptor alpha (FRα) biomarker is highly expressediv (≥75% of tumor cells with ≥2+ membrane staining intensity). To determine biomarker status, patients can be tested with Roche’s VENTANA FOLR1 (FOLR1-2.1) RxDx Assay at diagnosis or at the first sign of resistance to platinum-based chemotherapy. AbbVie collaborated with Roche Diagnostics on the newly approved immunohistochemistry (IHC) companion diagnostic test to identify patients who may be eligible for ELAHERE.

“The approval of ELAHERE by the European Commission provides a much needed clinically meaningful option for patients who receive the heartbreaking news their ovarian cancer has returned, fearing what’s next in their treatment journey after they’ve developed platinum-resistance,” said Roopal Thakkar, M.D., executive vice president, research and development, chief scientific officer, AbbVie.

The marketing authorization of ELAHERE is supported by data from MIRASOL: a global, Phase 3 open-label, randomized, controlled trial.

  • Trial participants were 18 years of age or older with disease that had progressed while on or after one to three lines of previous therapy. Patient tumors had to express high levels of FRɑ (≥75% of tumor cells with ≥2+ membrane intensity), assessed using the VENTANA FOLR1 (FOLR1-2.1) RxDx Assay. The primary endpoint was investigator-assessed progression-free survival (PFS). Key secondary endpoints included objective response rate (ORR) and overall survival (OS).
  • Results presented at the 2023 American Society of Clinical Oncology (ASCO) Annual Meeting demonstrated a 35% reduction in the risk of tumor progression or death in patients treated in the ELAHERE arm compared with the investigator’s choice (IC) chemotherapy arm, which represented an improvement in PFS [HR 0.65 (95% CI: 0.52, 0.81; p<0.0001)].
  • ELAHERE also demonstrated improvement in OS compared with IC chemotherapy, representing a 33% reduction in the risk of death in the ELAHERE arm in comparison to the IC chemotherapy arm [HR 0.67 (95% CI: 0.50, 0.89; p=0.0046)].
  • The most common adverse reactions with ELAHERE were blurred vision, nausea, diarrhea, fatigue, abdominal pain, keratopathy, dry eye, constipation, vomiting, decreased appetite, peripheral neuropathy, headache, asthenia, increased aspartate aminotransferase and arthralgia. The most commonly reported serious adverse reaction was pneumonitis.
  • Data from the Phase 3 MIRASOL Trial were also published in the New England Journal of Medicine (NEJM).

Read also: AbbVie to acquire Aliada Therapeutics for USD 1.4 billion in cash

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Indian Pharma Market grows at 6.8 percent in October, Chronic Therapies Dominate: IQVIA

New Delhi: The Indian Pharmaceutical Market (IPM) experienced a significant 6.8% increase in Total Sales Audit (TSA) over the 12-month period ending in October 2024, reaching a total of Rs 226,217 crore, according to the IQVIA Market Reflection Report for October 2024.

As per the report, chronic therapies have been the main growth driver, recording a 10% rise compared to acute therapies, which grew by 2%, signaling a shift toward long-term health management products. Robust innovation and product launches across the sector contributed in the growth as well.

The Total Sales Audit (TSA) and Secondary Sales Audit (SSA) figures underline the market’s steady growth trajectory. TSA reached Rs 226,217 Cr for the year ending October 2024, reflecting a growth rate of 6.8%, while SSA stood at Rs 190,940 Cr, growing by 6.7%. In October alone, TSA was valued at Rs 19,957 Cr with a growth rate of 5.0%, and SSA at Rs 16,843 Cr, marking a 4.5% increase over the same period last year. 

Therapeutic areas such as cardiac care and anti-diabetics were key contributors to the market’s expansion. Cardiac care, powered by drugs like Sacubitril + Valsartan, showed significant momentum, while the anti-diabetic segment led by Glimepiride + Metformin posted Rs 291 Cr in sales. Gastrointestinal therapies also performed well, with Esomeprazole + Domperidone showing a notable 29% growth. On the other hand, respiratory and pain therapies faced declines across most subcategories, except for specific combinations like Formoterol + Budesonide, which held steady.

Also Read: IQVIA Gets CDSCO Panel Nod to Study Antipsychotic drug Lumateperone

Top brands showcased significant growth stories. Foracort, leading with Rs 75 Cr in October 2024, retained its top position. Noteworthy growth stories include Pan-D, which grew by 20% to secure its place among the top 10, and Influvac, which experienced a staggering 89% growth, climbing 29 ranks.

Companies, too, showcased strategic growth trajectories. Sun Pharma maintained its dominance with an 8% market share, while Torrent and Glenmark improved their rankings in TSA. Emerging players like Hetero and P&G Health saw significant improvements in the SSA rankings, reflecting the sector’s growing diversity and competitive intensity.

The report also highlights an active innovation pipeline, with 698 new packs introduced in October 2024 alone. Additionally, the 70 brand transfers during this period signal ongoing consolidation and repositioning efforts by companies to strengthen their market presence.

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