Adequate sleep significantly reduces risk of hypertension in adolescents, according to new study

Adolescents who meet the recommended guidelines of nine to 11 hours of sleep per day were shown to have a significantly lower risk of hypertension, according to a new study from UTHealth Houston.

Recently published in theJournal of the American Heart Association, the research revealed that adolescents had a 37% lower risk of developing incidents of high blood pressure by meeting healthy sleep patterns, and underscoring the importance of adequate sleep behavior. The research further explored the impact of environmental factors potentially impacting sleep.

“Disrupted sleep can lead to changes in the body’s stress response, including elevated levels of stress hormones like cortisol, which in turn can increase blood pressure,” said first author Augusto César Ferreira De Moraes, PhD, assistant professor in the Department of Epidemiology at UTHealth Houston School of Public Health.

Utilizing the Adolescent Brain Cognitive Development study, which tracks adolescents’ biological and behavioral development, De Moraes and his team analyzed data from 3,320 adolescents across the U.S. to investigate incidents of high blood pressure during nighttime sleep cycles. Scientists identified a rise in hypertension incidents over two data periods, 2018-2020 and 2020-2022, showing an increase from 1.7% to 2.9%. The data included blood pressure readings and Fitbit assessments, which measured total sleep time and REM sleep duration at night. The study’s design analyzed covariates such as Fitbit-tracked sleep, blood pressure, and neighborhood noise by residential geocodes, allowing for a thorough examination of environmental noise exposure for each participant.

Scientists investigated the impact of neighborhood/community noise but did not find a significant association with the incidence of hypertension. Environmental factors, such as neighborhood noise, point to the need for longer-term studies to investigate the relationship between sleep health and hypertension, particularly in relation to socioeconomic status, stress levels, and genetic predispositions.

The study emphasizes the importance of improved sleep behaviors and meeting recommendations. “Consistent sleep schedules, minimizing screen time before bed, and creating a calm, quiet sleep environment can all contribute to better sleep quality,”Martin Ma, MPH, second author of the study and recent graduate of the school. “Although environmental noise didn’t directly affect hypertension in this study, maintaining a quiet and restful sleep environment is still important for overall well-being.” 

Reference:

Augusto César F. De Moraes, Martin Y. Ma, Impact of Environmental Noise and Sleep Health on Pediatric Hypertension Incidence: ABCD Study, Journal of the American Heart Association,  https://doi.org/10.1161/JAHA.124.037503

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Sleep disorder and chronic kidney disease may have Bidirectional association, unravels study

A new meta-analysis published in the recent issue of Clinical Kidney Journal revealed a significant bidirectional relationship between chronic kidney disease (CKD) and various sleep disorders, including obstructive sleep apnea (OSA), restless leg syndrome (RLS), and insomnia. The study utilized data from over 26 million patients on the interplay between these health conditions and highlighted the potential for targeted interventions to improve patient outcomes. By addressing sleep disorders, physicians may reduce the progression of CKD and improve the quality of life for the ones affected.

This research reviewed 63 observational studies following a systematic protocol registered on PROSPERO. After analyzing data from major medical databases like Medline/PubMed, Embase, Cochrane Library, and CINAHL. The risk ratios (RRs) were calculated to quantify the associations between CKD and sleep disorders.

The outcomes of this study found that obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) was significantly linked to CKD, with a 68% higher risk for CKD development among individuals with OSA (RR 1.68; 95% CI 1.45–1.93). The patients with CKD underwent a 60% higher risk of developing OSA (RR 1.60; 95% CI 1.35–1.89).

Other sleep disorders like RLS and insomnia also demonstrated critical associations. RLS was associated with an 88% higher risk of CKD (RR 1.88; 95% CI 1.48–2.38), and insomnia raised CKD risk by 24% (RR 1.24; 95% CI 1.01–1.54). Also, individuals with CKD had increased risks of RLS (RR 1.73; 95% CI 1.32–2.25) and insomnia (RR 1.14; 95% CI 1.03–1.27). The markers of kidney damage like albuminuria, were significantly associated with OSA (RR 1.54; 95% CI 1.18–1.99).

The study brings out a consistent bidirectional relationship across different CKD stages, diagnostic methods, and geographical regions. This suggests that managing one condition can positively influence the other. For instance, treating sleep disorders like OSA may slow CKD progression or reduce its severity, while early CKD management might mitigate the risk of sleep disturbances.

These findings advocate for integrated care approaches. Clinicians could substantially reduce associated health risks by screening for and addressing sleep disorders in CKD patients. Early identification and treatment of CKD in patients with OSA, RLS, or insomnia may also prove beneficial. Overall, this research highlights the importance of customized care strategies that account for the complex interaction between kidney health and sleep quality.

Source:

Koh, J. H., Lim, C. Y. J., Yam, K. J. M., Yeo, B. S. Y., Ng, A. C. W., Loh, S. R. H., Hsu, P. P., Gooley, J., Tan, C. S., & Toh, S. T. (2024). Bidirectional association of sleep disorders with chronic kidney disease: a systematic review and meta-analysis. In Clinical Kidney Journal (Vol. 17, Issue 11). Oxford University Press (OUP). https://doi.org/10.1093/ckj/sfae279

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Perfluorohexyloctane Eyedrops safe for contact lens wearers and may reduce contact lens dropout: Study

Dry eye disease (DED) is one of the most common disorders.
The incidence of DED has been increasing over the past several years. There are
two major subgroups of DED, aqueous-deficient DED, which results from reduced
lacrimal gland secretions, and evaporative DED, which results from excessive
evaporation of the tear film. The majority of DED cases have an underlying
evaporative component, and the primary cause of evaporative DED is meibomian
gland dysfunction (MGD). MGD causes alterations in the tear film lipid layer
which contributes to tear film instability and increased evaporation of the
aqueous layer. Tear film instability associated with MGD leads to tear
hyperosmolarity, resulting in apoptosis and inflammation of the ocular surface.

Patients suffering from DED complain of symptoms including
irritation, dryness, burning or stinging and visual disturbances. These
symptoms may adversely affect the patient’s quality of life and work
productivity. Signs of DED include tear film instability (eg, reduced tear film
breakup time (TBUT)), and conjunctival redness. Many therapies are being used
to help treat MGD, including physical therapies (eg, gland expression, thermal
pulsation, intense pulsed light), oral medications (eg, doxycycline,
azithromycin) with the intention of reducing inflammation or lowering meibum
viscosity, and over the counter lipid based tears to replenish the tear film
lipid layer temporarily. Immunomodulatory or anti-inflammatory drugs such as
cyclosporine, lifitegrast, and loteprednol etabonate are also being used for the
treatment of DED but are not approved for the treatment of MGD.

According to the TFOS DEWS II Iatrogenic Report, contact
lenses can significantly impact dry eye syndrome (DES). The mechanical
interaction between the lens and the ocular surface can disrupt the tear film,
leading to increased evaporation and instability. Contact lens wear can also
reduce corneal sensitivity and alter tear production. Long-term use of contact
lenses is associated with meibomian gland dysfunction, further contributing to
DES symptoms. Specifically, contact lens-induced dry eye (CLIDE) and contact
lens-associated dry eye (CLADE) are recognized conditions where lens wear
exacerbates dry eye symptoms.

Perfluorohexyloctane (PFHO) ophthalmic solution (MIEBO®)
(Bausch + Lomb) is a novel, non-aqueous, single entity, preservative-free
ophthalmic drop recently approved by the FDA for treatment of the signs and
symptoms of dry eye disease. This sterile, clear, colorless liquid containing
100% perfluorohexyloctane is approved for topical ophthalmic use four times
daily. Although its exact mechanism in DED is unknown, PFHO is effective in
reducing tear film evaporation by forming a monolayer at the tear film’s
air–liquid interface. Its low surface tension facilitates rapid spreading across
the tear film, causing minimal visual disturbance due to its refractive index
similar to water.

Both Phase 3 trials (GOBI and MOJAVE) demonstrated
significant improvements in both signs and symptoms of DED compared to
hypotonic saline, with good tolerability. In addition, 100% of the patients
enrolled in both trials also had clinically diagnosed meibomian gland dysfunction.
While the safety and efficacy of PFHO has been demonstrated in non-contact lens
wearers, its safety and potential benefits in habitual contact lens wearers
have not been explored. This report presented the results of a trial designed
to evaluate the safety of PFHO and its effect on contact lens comfort,
specifically in established contact lens wearers.

While the safety and efficacy of PFHO has been demonstrated
in non-contact lens wearers, its safety and potential benefits in habitual
contact lens wearers have not been explored. This report presents the results
of a trial designed to evaluate the safety of PFHO and its effect on contact lens
comfort, specifically in established contact lens wearers.

The study included 47 patients who were adjusted contact
lens wearers with a best corrected visual acuity of 20/25 or better at
distance. All the patients were healthy contact lens wearers with no dry eye
symptoms. A significant improvement in comfort scoring was observed without any
significant changes in osmolarity, meibography scores, and total fluorescein
staining.

PFHO, administered 4 times daily for 4 weeks in patients
wearing soft contact lenses, has shown to be safe and well tolerated when used
as directed by the manufacturer. These findings are noteworthy, given that
demonstration of safe use of PFHO in soft contact lens wearers has not been
evaluated from other studies. PFHO also demonstrated a significant improvement
in contact lens comfort. These results are even more interesting given that
these patients were not dry eye patients. There were no serious ocular or
nonocular AEs reported in patients treated with PFHO in this study. Limitations
of the current study include the relatively short treatment period of 4 weeks
and not exclusively evaluating contact lens wearers with dry eye disease.
Further research is needed to explore the mechanisms driving changes in comfort
and their relation to tear film stability. A future study where patients do not
remove their contact lenses when instilling PFHO could also be considered.

The conclusion in this study is that PFHO is a safe product
to utilize for soft contact lens wearers when used as directed by the
manufacturer. The study demonstrated no statistically significant adverse
changes to the ocular surface while showing statistically significant
improvement in comfort.

Source: Geffen and Pennell; Clinical Ophthalmology 2024:18

https://doi.org/10.2147/OPTH.S487897

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Among patients with POI longer duration of endometrial stimulation needed compared with older women using donor egg embryos: Study

Patients with premature ovarian insufficiency (POI) require
programmed cycles for endometrial preparation in donor egg embryo transfers
(ET). Studies suggest that endometrial thickness (EMT) is correlated with
pregnancy outcomes; however, these patients are at risk of thin endometrium.
The aim of this study was to investigate whether patients with POI need
extended endometrial stimulation and its impact on pregnancy outcomes.

This was a single-center retrospective cohort study
(February 2019–September 2022) at Mount Sinai Hospital, Toronto, Canada. All
patients underwent programmed ET cycles. The POI group was compared with an
advanced reproductive age (ARA) group (>41 years old), both undergoing fresh
or frozen donor egg ET, and a control group undergoing autologous frozen ET.
Estrace (4 mg twice daily) was initiated on day 2, and an ultrasound was
performed on day 14. When EMT <8 mm, transdermal estradiol (100 mg) every
other day was added with a reassessment in 5–7 days. Progesterone was initiated
once EMT R8 mm, and luteal support depended on patient as well as physician
preference. Embryo transfers were cancelled for persistently thin lining, fluid
in the cavity, or uterine pathology.

The primary outcome was days to optimal EMT. Secondary
outcomes included early pregnancy loss rate, clinical pregnancy rate (CPR),
ongoing pregnancy rate (OPR), and ultrasound characteristics. Subgroup analysis
assessed pregnancy outcomes in patients with POI requiring >3 weeks vs. ≤3
weeks to optimal EMT.

A total of 878 cycles from 387 patients (177 cycles/51
patients with POI, 357 cycles/135 patients with ARA, and 344 cycles/ 201
controls) were included. Patients with POI required a longer time to optimal
EMT compared with ARA and controls (median [interquartile range]: POI 13 days
[12.0–19.0] vs. ARA 12 days [12.0– 13.3] vs. controls 12 days [12.0–13.0],
P<.001). No differences were seen in early pregnancy loss rate, CPR, or OPR
between groups.

Patients with POI were more likely to exhibit fluid in the
cavity (POI 10.2% vs. ARA 4.2% vs. controls 3.8%, P=.004) and subendometrial
cysts (POI 14.7% vs. ARA 6.2% vs. controls 4.9%, P<.001).

A higher proportion of patients with POI required >3
weeks for optimal EMT compared with ARA and controls. Within the POI group,
those requiring >3 weeks had a lower CPR (>3 weeks: 20.6% vs. ≤3
weeks: 34.6%, P≤0.1) and lower OPR (>3 weeks: 5.9% vs. ≤3
weeks: 22.0%, P=0.05)

In this study, patients with POI required a longer duration
of endometrial stimulation compared with older women using donor egg embryos
and age-matched women using autologous embryos. In addition, in patients with
POI, endometrial stimulation >3 weeks was linked to lower pregnancy
outcomes. There is limited research on the effect of endometrial stimulation
duration on pregnancy outcomes in the POI population. Although other studies
did not show an impact with extended stimulation, some studies did not address
whether a specific EMT threshold was achieved.

The response of the endometrium to estrogen stimulation may
fundamentally differ in patients with POI because of a lack of endogenous
hormones, and longer stimulation may reflect intrinsic differences in
endometrial development. One study showed that patients with POI on prior
hormone replacement therapy had a nonsignificant trend toward higher EMT and
CPR. In this study, authors used EMT ≥8 mm as a threshold. Although studies
have indicated EMT of 7 mm may yield comparable outcomes in nondonor egg cycles,
these studies did not specifically explore the impact of EMT in POI, necessitating
further research to determine whether patients with POI require a different EMT
threshold. Limitations of study include small samples in our subgroup analysis;
thus, caution in interpreting these results is advised. Nonetheless, clinicians
should be mindful of the potential impact extended endometrial stimulation may
have on pregnancy outcomes in patients with POI.

Source: Trish Dinh, Qixuan Li, Ella Huszti; FertSert VOL.
122 NO. 5 / NOVEMBER 2024

https://doi.org/10.1016/j.fertnstert.2024.06.019

Among patients with POI  longer duration of endometrial stimulation needed compared with older women using donor egg embryos and age-matched women using autologous embryos.

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Cold Test Signals Anesthesia Failure in Painful Pulpitis Treatments, reveals study

According to researchers, a cold test combined with an electric pulp testing (EPT) could more accurately assess the effectiveness of anesthesia in symptomatic irreversible pulpitis (SIP) patients undergoing dental treatment. While inferior alveolar nerve block (IANB) can induce effective anesthesia of the lip, it is extremely rare for them to ensure pain-free procedures in painful pulpitis cases. A recent study was conducted by Farzaneh and colleagues and was published in the Journal of Endodontics.

Fear of dental procedures, especially root canal, mostly emerges as a consequence of previous painful experience creating barriers to required dental visits. A satisfactory pain control is crucial in such cases; however, IANB is the gold standard for reduction of postoperative numbness of jaw, which also has a low success rate in patients with SIP. This study determined the diagnostic value of these tests in terms of the improvement of the validity of IANB among patients undergoing treatment of mandibular molars.

A cross sectional study involved 50 patients diagnosed with SIP in the mandibular first molar, all of whom exhibited lip numbness due to the injection of IANB. Both cold tests and EPT were carried out following confirmation of lip numbness; an access cavity preparation served as a “gold standard” test. For this procedure, the responses were either “presence of pain or discomfort” or “absence of pain or discomfort,” thus denoting failure or success in IANB, respectively. SN, SP, PPV, NPV, LR+/-, and AC with 95% CI for each test performed individually as well as in combination

  • 56% of patients failed IANB signifying necessity for more effective pain evaluation techniques.

  • Compared with EPT, cold test had high specificity (SP), PPV, and positive likelihood ratio (LR+); these are indicative of a strong signal of anesthesia failure when results are positive.

  • The accuracy between the cold test and EPT did not differ significantly for sensitivity, negative predictive value, or accuracy. However, the combination of both tests enhances the sensitivity, NPV, PPV, and LR-

The cold test is a good marker of the failure of anesthesia, and adding EPT to the test increases accuracy in clinical diagnosis. These results demonstrated that dual testing is important because it can significantly enhance the experiences of anxious patients about their fear of pain during dental procedures.

Reference:

Afkhami, F., Ghabraei, S., Hashemi, N., & Peters, O. A. (2024). Evaluation of cold and electric pulp tests for assessing the success of inferior alveolar nerve block for mandibular first molars diagnosed with symptomatic irreversible pulpitis. Journal of Endodontics. https://doi.org/10.1016/j.joen.2024.10.013

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NBE to begin registrations for Formative Assessment Test for FNB Trainees 2023 Admission session, check details

New Delhi- The National Board of Examinations for Medical Sciences (NBEMS) has released a notice regarding the registration for the Formative Assessment Test (FAT-2023) for FNB trainees of the 2023 admission session.

FAT Theory Exam, 2023 for FNB Trainees of 2023 admission session is scheduled to be held on 12th January 2025 in 2 sessions i.e. morning and afternoon. For the FAT, the centre for the exam will be the nearest available to the Training Institution.

The admit card for FAT (Theory), FNB Trainees of the 2023 Admission session shall be issued to Training Institutions by 26 December 2024. The conduct of Work Place Based Clinical Assessment shall also be commenced from February 2025.

Also Read: NEET SS 2024, NEET MDS 2025, DNB, Fellowship exams: Check NBE schedule for all forthcoming exams

SCHEDULE

S.NO

EVENTS

DATES

1

Registration of Trainees for FAT-2023 to start on.

03 December 2024

2

Last date of Registration.

16 December 2024

3

Admit Cards for FAT (Theory), FNB Trainees of 2023 Admission session.

26 December 2024

4

FAT Theory Examination, 2023 for FNB Trainees of 2023 Admission Session.

12 January 2025

5

Conduct of Work Place Based Clinical Assessment.

From February 2025

Registration of NBEMS trainees for FAT-2023 for FNB Trainees of the 2023 Admission Session can be done through the NBEMS Online Portal only by their NBEMS accredited training institution. The registration process for the FAT-2023 will commence on 03rd December 2024 and will end on 16th December 2024. While registering, candidates also need to pay Rs.6000/ (to be paid by Training Institutions only through NBEMS Online Portal for FAT-2023).

To be eligible for the FAT-2023, candidates must possess NBEMS Fellowship Courses and 1st-year trainees (2023). The candidates who were eligible to appear in FAT-2022 and could not appear irrespective of any reasons, are also eligible to appear in the aforesaid examinations. Such types of candidates need to register for the aforesaid FAT through their training institutions.

To view the notice, click the link below

https://medicaldialogues.in/pdf_upload/nbems-invites-application-for-fat-2023-for-fnb-trainees-registration-starts-soonjpg-262851.pdf

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Pharma Firms Under Scanner: HC Ropes in CBI for Synthetic Drug Probe

Chandigarh: The Punjab and Haryana High Court has directed the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) to investigate the role of pharmaceutical manufacturers in the alarming spread of synthetic drugs across Haryana, Punjab, and neighboring regions.

This directive was issued by a bench comprising Justice Sanjeev Prakash Sharma and Justice Sanjay Vashisth during the resumed hearing of a 2020 drug-related case.

The order came amidst growing concerns over the inefficacy of regulatory mechanisms in controlling the manufacture and distribution of synthetic drugs. In particular, the bench expressed doubts about the performance of the Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB) in monitoring drug manufacturing.

Background of the Case

The court’s order originated from a plea related to a November 2020 drug seizure case. In 2021, the investigation had been transferred to the CBI amidst allegations involving a pharmaceutical company. The CBI had since concluded its investigation into the specific case. However, concerns persisted over the secret release of pharmaceutical drugs like Tramadol into the market, often disguised as legitimate products.

During earlier proceedings in September 2024, the court had observed;
“In cases relating to the NDPS, most of the drugs are those which are found in vials but in the form of medicines. These are manufactured by various pharmaceutical firms and are being released in the market in a clandestine manner. However, no steps are found to have been taken by the CBI or NCB.”

Concerned over drug manufacturing, the court remarked;

“We have our reservation regarding the performances of the NCB authorities with regard to such regulation of drug manufacturing because we have been noticing in various cases which have come to the high court that huge quantity of drugs are being recovered which are in the form of tablets, syringes, and vials, which are manufactured by various drug manufacturing companies situated in and around the areas of State of Haryana as well as Punjab.”

The remark followed an NCB submission detailing its steps against synthetic drug proliferation in collaboration with state governments.

In its latest affidavit, the Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB) outlined details of several significant drug seizures, highlighting the scale of synthetic drug proliferation. In March 2020, authorities in Malout confiscated 33,000 Tramadol tablets. This was followed by a seizure in June 2020 in Panchkula and Ferozepur, where 56,000 tablets of Clovidol (Tramadol) were recovered. In Amritsar, two separate cases in May 2021 led to the confiscation of 27,000 tablets and 14,000 tablets, respectively. Additionally, in April 2022, another operation in Amritsar resulted in the seizure of 10,000 tablets.

CBI counsel Deepak Sabherwal informed the court that the agency could initiate a preliminary inquiry into pharmaceutical companies’ roles if directed. The court approved the formation of a high-integrity investigation team under the CBI’s control, allowing the inclusion of officers from NCB and state police for feedback and assistance.

The bench emphasized;

“To complete the probe, the CBI would be entitled to conduct search and seizure as well as to make appropriate arrests.”

It also instructed state DGPs and the UT DGP to provide necessary manpower and logistical support for the investigation. The CBI was further authorized to collaborate with police officials from neighboring states for effective investigation.

According to a recent media report in HT, the court has directed the CBI to submit a preliminary report within two months, with the matter scheduled for its next hearing on February 13, 2025.

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Cipla slapped with Rs 53L GST penalty for alleged TRAN-1 credit misuse, plans legal challenge

Mumbai: Drug major Cipla Limited has disclosed that the Office of the Principal Commissioner of Central Goods & Services Tax (GST) and Central Excise in Lucknow has imposed a penalty of Rs 53,09,449 on the company. This penalty, under the provisions of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017, relates to the alleged improper use of TRAN-1 credit. The credit in question was availed by Cipla during the transition to the GST regime, and the GST Authority has claimed it was inadmissible under the law.

This disclosure, made under Regulation 30 of the SEBI (Listing Obligations and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2015, was communicated to stock exchanges, including BSE Limited and the National Stock Exchange of India, as well as to the Luxembourg Stock Exchange. Cipla received the official order dated November 13, 2024, on November 27, 2024, as detailed in a regulatory filing.

The GST Authority has alleged that Cipla availed inadmissible credit under the TRAN-1 mechanism, which was introduced during the transition to the GST regime. TRAN-1 credit allowed businesses to carry forward eligible tax credits from the pre-GST indirect tax system into the GST framework. The Authority has not only ordered the recovery of the disputed amount but has also imposed a penalty along with applicable interest under the CGST Act, 2017.

The TRAN-1, or “Transition Form-1,” is a form used by individuals or organizations eligible to claim tax credits for taxes paid under the pre-GST regime, such as VAT or service tax. Before the implementation of GST, taxes were levied in multiple forms, including those on raw materials and partially finished goods. The introduction of the TRAN-1 form was part of the GST Council’s effort to streamline tax credits and align financial records with the unified GST system, ensuring a smooth transition from the previous tax framework to the new regime.

Also Read: Setback to Cipla: DoP rejects plea challenging NPPA order for Acivir Tablets pricing

In its disclosure, Cipla has firmly stated that the penalty levied is “arbitrary and unjustified.”

The company plans to challenge the order by filing an appeal with the appropriate appellate authority. Cipla emphasized that its assessment of the facts and applicable laws supports its view that the GST Authority’s penalty lacks merit.

Despite the penalty, Cipla has assured its stakeholders that there will be no material impact on the company’s financial performance or operations. The company reiterated its commitment to resolving the issue through due legal processes while maintaining operational stability.

The disclosure aligns with SEBI’s updated compliance guidelines, as outlined in Circular No. SEBI/HO/CFD/CFDPoD-1/P/CIR/2023/123 dated July 13, 2023.

Cipla intends to file an appeal challenging the GST Authority’s order in the coming weeks. The outcome of the appeal will determine the final resolution of this matter. The company has assured stakeholders that it will remain compliant with legal and regulatory requirements while pursuing the necessary legal recourse.

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Digitally arrested for 20 days, Retired MKCG Medical College doctor duped of Rs 1 crore by fraudsters

Bhubaneswar: In a recent cyber fraud case, a retired doctor from MKCG Medical College and Hospital in Berhampur allegedly became the latest victim of an elaborate digital scam and lost around Rs 1 crore to fraudsters posing as a TRAI official and a Mumbai Cyber Crime Division officer. The retired doctor was kept under digital arrest for 20 days and was threatened with arrest.

The incident came to light after the Odisha Crime Branch Police arrested the fraudster and accordingly seized his mobile phone, three SIM cards, a Saudi Arabian SIM card, a passbook, a passport, an Aadhaar card, a PAN card, a debit card, and credit cards. 

According to sources from the Odisha Police Headquarters on Thursday, the arrested individual has been identified as a 33-year-old man from Nizamabad, Telangana.

Also read- AIIMS Jodhpur doctor duped of Rs 18 lakh by fake cardiologist on dating app

During the investigation, it was revealed that he is involved in more than 13 criminal cases across the country. As per The Statesman news report, the CID busted an inter-state gang involved in digital arrest cyber fraud.

UNI news agency reported that a senior citizen from Berhampur was the victim of this digital “arrest” scam. The fraudsters introduced themselves as TRAI and Mumbai Cyber Crime Division police officers and inquired about an unknown mobile number linked to the victim’s Aadhaar card. They initially threatened the victim, claiming that the mobile number had been used to purchase illegal weapons and drugs. Furthermore, the fraudsters stated that several people in Maharashtra had received threatening calls from the same number.

They detained the victim by making a WhatsApp video call, informing him that he could be imprisoned for 3 to 7 years for this offence. They then asked him to transfer all his money to their account for “verification.” The fraudsters assured the victim that the entire amount would be refunded after the verification process was completed.

Following this, the victim transferred Rs. 1 crore in two instalments to the fraudster’s account. After realizing that he had been scammed, the victim reported the matter to the Crime Branch. The police initiated an investigation and arrested the accused.

It is also noteworthy that the investigation has revealed the accused travelled to Saudi Arabia for 9 months in 2017 and again in 2024.

“The investigation in the case is still in progress, with a manhunt underway to arrest other accomplices involved in this crime, trace its trans-India ramifications, and follow the money trail,” the CID officials told The Statesman. 

Following the incident, the CID issued an advisory for the public which mentioned, “The citizens are requested not to be subjected to any such online threat/mental duress by fraudsters pretending themselves as officers of law enforcement agencies/Customs/Excise/Telecom Regulatory Authority of India, etc., and to report such matters at the nearest police station.”

Also read- Hyderabad Doctor loses Rs 69 lakh in online trading scam

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Doctors question NBE over release of NEET PG 2025 dates

There was no mention of the date of the upcoming National Eligibility-Entrance Test Postgraduate (NEET-PG) examination in the recently released academic calendar by the National Board of Examinations in Medical Sciences (NBEMS).

Medical Dialogues had earlier reported that NBE released the schedule of the upcoming NBE exams including FDST, NEET-SS 2024, NEET-MDS 2025, FET for FNB Courses-2023 admission session, DNB- Post Diploma Centralized Entrance Test (PDCET) 2025, FNB Exit Examination 2024, DrNB Final Practical Examinations- January 2025, etc.

For more information, click on the link below:

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