Daily e-cigarettes use increased overall smoking cessation rates than nondaily use: JAMA

A new study published in the Journal of American Medical Association suggests a persistent correlation among the higher rates of quitting cigarette, daily e-cigarette usage and e-cigarette use from 2019 to 2021. The relationship between e-cigarettes and quitting combustion cigarettes influences the health consequences related to e-cigarette use at the population level. It is within the jurisdiction of the US Food and Drug Administration to control the taste and kind of e-cigarettes. Thus, this study by Karin  Kasza and colleagues was to find out if there is a relationship between e-cigarette attributes and smoking cessation behaviors among adult US e-cigarette users.

This cohort analysis was carried out utilizing longitudinal data from the Population Assessment of Tobacco and Health analysis, a population-based, nationally representative study of the US, which was undertaken from 2014 to 2021. A 4-staged, stratified sampling strategy was used to choose participants from the civilian, non-institutionalized population. Data from 1985 persons who were 21 years of age or older, regularly smoked cigarettes, and had used e-cigarettes during the previous 30 days were weighted and analyzed. Between May 2021 and May 2024, data were examined. As a stand-in for the changing e-cigarette market, the following features of e-cigarettes were evaluated, which included flavor type (menthol or mint, sweet, tobacco, and combination), usage frequency (daily and nondaily), device type (cartridge, disposable, and tank), and year of gathering data.

A total of 1985 individuals who were representative of the adult population made up the study sample and the usage of e-cigarettes in 2019 to 2021 versus 2014-2015 to 2015-2016 was found to be similarly related with increased overall cigarette cessation rates. Daily vs. nondaily e-cigarette usage was linked to higher overall cigarette discontinuation rates. When evaluating e-cigarette usage at baseline, only the use of menthol or mint flavor e-cigarettes was linked to higher total cigarette cessation rates. Adjusted studies revealed no relationship between the kind of e-cigarette device and the rates of cigarette cessation.

Overall, the daily e-cigarette usage and e-cigarette use from 2019 to 2021 were consistently linked to higher rates of cigarette quitting in this cohort analysis of adult US users. The results imply that randomized clinical studies utilizing these products are necessary and that choices on the public health implications of e-cigarettes should be based on evidence from e-cigarettes that have emerged outside of the regulated market in recent years.

Source:

Kasza, K. A., Rivard, C., Goniewicz, M. L., Fong, G. T., Hammond, D., Cummings, K. M., & Hyland, A. (2024). E-Cigarette Characteristics and Cigarette Cessation Among Adults Who Use E-Cigarettes. In JAMA Network Open (Vol. 7, Issue 8, p. e2423960). American Medical Association (AMA). https://doi.org/10.1001/jamanetworkopen.2024.23960

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People with schizophrenia may have increased bone fragility risk, finds study

A new study by Behnaz Azimi Manavi and team showed that individuals diagnosed with schizophrenia had markedly reduced bone mineral density (BMD) in the lumbar spine and femoral neck, where osteoporotic fractures are more common. The findings of this study were published in the journal of Translational Psychiatry.

Decreased bone stiffness, low bone mineral density, disturbance of the microarchitecture of the bone, and an increased risk of fracture, especially at the hip, spine, and wrist, are the hallmarks of osteoporosis. A popular technique for estimating fracture risk is dual energy x-ray absorptiometry, or DXA, which analyzes arterial bone mineral density. Thus, bone health has been linked to several medical diseases and a few behavioral illnesses. There is mounting data that indicates a greater frequency of medical comorbidities, such as osteoporosis and fractures, among the individuals with schizophrenia. The purpose of this systematic review and meta-analysis was to determine if schizophrenia and bone fragility are related.

The PECO (Population, Exposure, Comparison, Outcome) framework guided the development and presentation of the study question, inclusion and exclusion criteria. The DSM-IV/5, the ICD, or medical records were used to diagnose schizophrenia. Bone fragility [i.e., bone mineral density (BMD), bone turnover indicators, fracture, and bone quality] was the end point of this review. A search plan was created and put into practice for the electronic databases. Every included study underwent a narrative synthesis, and a meta-analysis was conducted by pooling the data from relevant studies that reported on fracture and BMD using a random effects model.

Out of the 3103 studies that this research produced, 29 satisfied the predefined qualifying requirements. 37 publications from 29 research comprised 17 studies looking at bone mineral density (BMD), 8 studies looking at fracture, 3 studies looking at bone quality and 9 studies looking at indicators of bone turnover. The lumbar spine and femoral neck BMDs were shown to be lower in individuals with schizophrenia, according to the meta-analyses. There was also evidence of an increased fracture risk. The relationship between schizophrenia and femoral neck BMD and fracture persisted even when publication bias was taken into account.

The outcomes of this meta-analysis and systematic review support the idea that individuals with schizophrenia may have fragile bones. Overall, the individuals diagnosed with schizophrenia specifically have decreased bone mineral density (BMD), especially around the femoral neck, increased fracture risk, decreased bone quality, and accelerated bone turnover.

Reference:

Azimi Manavi, B., Corney, K. B., Mohebbi, M., Quirk, S. E., Stuart, A. L., Pasco, J. A., Hodge, J. M., Berk, M., & Williams, L. J. (2024). The neglected association between schizophrenia and bone fragility: a systematic review and meta-analyses. In Translational Psychiatry (Vol. 14, Issue 1). Springer Science and Business Media LLC. https://doi.org/10.1038/s41398-024-02884-1

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Revolutionizing Glioma Care: Machine Learning and fMRI Predict Post-Surgical Functional Status, study finds

USA: In a groundbreaking leap forward for neuro-oncology, a recent study has unveiled a pioneering approach to predicting post-surgical functional status in high-grade glioma (HGG) patients using resting-state functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) and machine learning algorithms. The research heralds a transformative era in personalized treatment strategies for one of the most aggressive forms of brain cancer.

Researchers found that a machine-learning algorithm with resting-state functional MRI can help clinicians foresee surgical outcomes in high-grade glioma patients. They developed a random-forest classifier that was highly accurate for predicting tumor resection outcomes in brain cancer patients.

The findings were published online in the Journal of Neuro-Oncology on 24 May 2024.

“The capability to forecast postsurgical functional outcomes from the initial diagnosis could be advantageous in surgical planning and for better-informing patients of their likely treatment outcomes,” the group noted.

High-grade gliomas, characterized by their rapid growth and invasive nature, present formidable challenges for clinicians tasked with navigating the delicate balance between tumor resection and preserving neurological function. Traditional methods for assessing postoperative functional status have often relied on subjective evaluations and empirical observations, leaving room for uncertainty and variability in treatment outcomes.

Patrick H. Luckett, Department of Neurological Surgery, Washington University School of Medicine, St. Louis, MO, USA, and colleagues aimed to develop models capable of predicting functional outcomes in HGG patients before surgery, facilitating improved disease management and informed patient care.

For this purpose, the research team retrospectively recruited adult HGG patients (N = 102) from the neurosurgery brain tumor service at Washington University Medical Center. All patients completed resting-state functional MRI and structural neuroimaging before surgery.

Demographics, tumor location, measures of resting state network connectivity (FC), and tumor volume were used to train a random forest classifier to predict functional outcomes based on Karnofsky Performance Status (KPS < 70, KPS ≥ 70).

The following were the key findings of the study:

· The models achieved a nested cross-validation accuracy of 94.1% and an AUC of 0.97 in classifying KPS.

· The strongest predictors identified by the model included FC between somatomotor, visual, auditory, and reward networks.

· Based on location, the relation of the tumor to dorsal attention, cingulo-opercular, and basal ganglia networks were strong predictors of KPS.

· Age was also a strong predictor. However, tumor volume was only a moderate predictor.

The research demonstrates how machine learning can accurately classify HGG patients’ functional outcomes before surgical, chemical, or radiotherapy treatments. These results were achieved using tumor location, age, tumor size, and RS-fMRI measures.

“By incorporating these models into clinical practice, we stand to enhance patient care, enabling personalized treatment plans that balance quality of life with survival,” the researchers wrote. “Such models can drive a more nuanced approach to HGG patient management, prioritizing longevity and post-treatment quality of life.”

Reference:

Luckett, P.H., Olufawo, M.O., Park, K.Y. et al. Predicting post-surgical functional status in high-grade glioma with resting-state fMRI and machine learning. J Neurooncol (2024). https://doi.org/10.1007/s11060-024-04715-1

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New Study Suggests Routine Lactate Testing for TBI Patients Could Cut Mortality and Improve Outcomes

Spain: A new study published in Neurology Journal showed that measuring lactate levels in all patients with traumatic brain injury (TBI), especially those with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 9 or higher, offers significant benefits.

Routine inclusion of lactate in TBI screening could lead to earlier and more accurate identification of at-risk patients, potentially reducing both mortality and deterioration rates, Francisco Martin-Rodriguez, Hospital Clínico Universitario, Valladolid, Spain, and colleagues wrote.

Traumatic brain injury remains a leading cause of death and disability worldwide, with rapid and accurate assessment being crucial for effective treatment. Traditionally, lactate levels—a marker of tissue hypoxia and metabolic stress—are measured once patients arrive at the hospital. Dr. Martin-Rodriguez and colleagues aimed to assess how well prehospital lactate levels can predict 2-day in-hospital mortality in patients with traumatic brain injury, the study focused on both severe TBI cases (GCS ≤ 8 points) and mild or moderate TBI cases (GCS ≥ 9 points). Additionally, the research examined the potential of lactate levels to forecast 90-day mortality.

For this purpose, the researchers conducted a prospective, multicenter, ambulance-based cohort study across five tertiary hospitals in Spain, spanning from November 1, 2019, to July 31, 2022. The study involved patients who were transported to referral hospitals for acute traumatic brain injury (TBI) following emergency requests. Exclusion criteria included minors, pregnant individuals, trauma patients without TBI, delayed presentations, patients discharged on-site, those experiencing cardiac arrest, and cases where blood samples could not be obtained.

The primary outcomes examined were all-cause 2-day in-hospital mortality, and 90-day mortality, specifically comparing patients with moderate or mild TBI to those with severe TBI. Clinical and analytical data, including lactate and glucose levels, were systematically collected. To evaluate the effectiveness of prehospital lactate levels in predicting outcomes, the researchers calculated the discriminative power using the area under the receiver operating characteristic curve (AUC) and assessed model accuracy with a calibration curve, across two geographically distinct cohorts.

The following were the key findings of the study:

  • The study included 509 patients. The median age was 58 years and 32.8% of patients were females.
  • The primary outcome occurred in 2.2% of 415 patients with moderate or mild TBI and 44.7% of 94 patients with severe TBI.
  • The predictive capacity of the lactate concentration was globally validated in the cohort, for which the AUC was 0.874 in the validation cohort.
  • The ability of the GCS score to predict lactate concentration was greater in patients with a GCS score ≥9 points, with an AUC of 0.925 and a negative predictive value of 99.09 in the validation cohort.

“Our findings showed that routine incorporation of lactate in the screening of TBI patients could presumably reduce mortality and deterioration rates because of better and quicker identification of patients at risk,” the researchers concluded.

Reference:

Martin-Rodriguez F, Sanz-Garcia A, Lopez-Izquierdo R, Delgado Benito JF, Martínez Fernández FT, Otero de la Torre S, Del Pozo Vegas C. Prehospital Lactate Levels Obtained in the Ambulance and Prediction of 2-Day In-Hospital Mortality in Patients With Traumatic Brain Injury. Neurology. 2024 Aug 27;103(4):e209692. doi: 10.1212/WNL.0000000000209692. Epub 2024 Aug 1. PMID: 39088773.

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Needle-Free Jet Injector with Bleomycin Proves Effective and Patient-Friendly for Severe Keloids in Recent Study

Netherlands: A recent study has revealed that Intralesional bleomycin administered via a needle-free electronic pneumatic jet injector (EPI) is effective and well-tolerated for treating keloid patients. The randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled trial highlights a promising advancement in dermatological treatment options for this challenging condition.

“Three treatments using the EPI with bleomycin have proven effective and well-tolerated for severe keloids. Additionally, the majority of patients preferred EPI treatment, suggesting it could be a more patient-friendly alternative,” the researchers wrote in Clinical and Experimental Dermatology.

Treating severe keloids poses significant challenges, as corticosteroid injections can be painful and are often accompanied by frequent recurrences. Consequently, there is an urgent need for more effective, safe, and patient-friendly alternative treatments.

The needle-free jet injector offers several advantages over conventional methods. By eliminating the need for needles, it addresses one of the major sources of patient discomfort and anxiety. This approach also reduces the risk of needle-related complications and may improve overall patient compliance.

Against the above background, Vazula Z Bekkers, University Medical Center Rotterdam, Rotterdam, the Netherlands, and colleagues aimed to assess the tolerability, efficacy, and patient satisfaction of intralesional bleomycin treatment using a needle-free EPI in severe keloids.

The double-blind, randomized placebo-controlled trial with split-lesion design included patients with severe keloids. Three EPI treatments, using bleomycin or saline, were administered every four weeks on the respective intervention and control sides. Fourteen patients (nine female, five men) were included.

Outcome measures included changes in scar volume evaluated through 3D imaging, the Patient and Observer Scar Assessment Scale (POSAS), skin perfusion assessed by laser speckle contrast imaging (LSCI), spilled volume, procedure-related pain, adverse events, and patient satisfaction.

The following were the key findings of the study:

  • The estimated mean keloid volume was significantly reduced by 20% after EPI-assisted bleomycin, compared to a slight increase of 3% in the control side.
  • The estimated mean POSAS patient and observer scores reduced, by 26% and 28%.
  • LSCI showed no significant change in perfusion. EPI treatment was preferred over previous needle injections in 85% of patients.
  • The estimated mean spilled volume after EPI was around 50%, and NRS pain scores were moderate.
  • Adverse events included bruising, hyperpigmentation, and transient superficial necrosis.

The findings showed that treatment with intralesional bleomycin using a needle‐free electronic pneumatic jet injector is well-tolerated and effective among keloid patients.

“This promising development could pave the way for broader adoption of needle-free technologies in medical treatments, offering hope to those suffering from severe keloids and potentially transforming the landscape of dermatological care,” the researchers concluded.

Reference:

Bekkers, V. Z., Zdunczyk, K. M., Bik, L., Ten Voorde, W., Aarts, P., Oerlemans, F., Bohoslavsky, R., Haedersdal, M., Prens, E. P., Rissmann, R., & Van Doorn, M. B. Needle-free jet injector treatment with bleomycin is efficacious in patients with severe keloids: A randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled trial. Clinical and Experimental Dermatology. https://doi.org/10.1093/ced/llae254

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Doctor transferred despite appointment being non-transferrable! HC slams DME for violating service terms, slaps compensation

Jabalpur: The Madhya Pradesh High Court recently asked the Director of Medical Education (DME) to pay Rs 25,000 as cost while considering a plea by a doctor who was transferred for a second time in violation of the terms of her service.

Quashing the transfer order, the HC bench comprising Justice Vishal Mishra clarified the amount of cost has to be paid by the Director of Medical Education out of his pocket.

“Therefore, while quashing the impugned transfer order, this Court deems it appropriate to impose a cost of Rs.25,000/- on the respondents, to be personally borne by the respondent No.3-Director, Medical Education, and to be paid to the petitioner within a period of seven days from the date of this order. The compliance to the aforesaid be reported to this Court. The aforesaid conduct of the respondent No.3 be reported in his service records,” it observed.

The petitioner was appointed as a Demonstrator in Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose Medical College (Autonomous), Jabalpur on 25.03.2017. Later, she was promoted to the post of Assistant Professor on 02.05.2018 and to the post of Designate Associate Professor on 03.11.2022. 

Despite the appointment of the petitioner being non-transferable, she was transferred to Government Medical College, Seoni by an order dated 22.07.2024. Challenging the order, the doctor approached the HC bench. 

It was pointed out that Clause 12 of the appointment order clearly stipulated that the services of the petitioner were non-transferable. Earlier, the petitioner was transferred and filed a plea before the Court and thereafter through an order dated 22.02.2023, the interim relief was granted to the petitioner doctor to the effect that she was permitted to perform her duties at the present place of posting i.e. Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose Medical College, Jabalpur till the next date of hearing.

Thereafter, through the final order dated 14.03.2023, the doctor’s plea was allowed in the light of the order passed in the case of Dr. Yogesh Rathore vs State of Madhya Pradesh. 

Further, the petitioner referred to the fact that in identical circumstances, the case of other employee i.e. Dr. Shailesh Kumar who had also preferred a plea was disposed of by an order dated 23.02.2023 and the transfer order was also quashed.

Therefore, it was argued despite being aware of the fact that the petitioner’s services were non-transferable, again the authorities passed the order transferring the petitioner to GMC Seoni which was not permissible.

When the matter was taken up in the second round, the State Counsel was directed to seek instructions to the effect that despite a specific observation made by the Court in the earlier round of litigation, and the similar transfer order of the petitioner being quashed holding that there was a condition in the appointment order that her services were non-transferable, under what circumstances, the order dated 22.07.2024 was passed.

Consequently, the State Counsel after seeking instructions from the department telephonically, submitted that a mistake was committed and transfer orders were passed.

Taking note of this, the HC bench observed,

  “Once the respondents accept the mistake in passing the order dated 22.07.2024 coupled with the fact that there is no subsequent order passed by them cancelling the said order, it appears that there is no initiative taken by the respondents to cancel the order dated 22.07.2024. The petitioner is compelled to approach this Court again challenging her transfer order, although it is temporary in nature but the fact remains that Clause 12 of the appointment order is clear and cogent that her services are non-transferable. Furthermore, the similar issue was considered by this Court on the earlier occasion and the transfer order of the petitioner and others were quashed considering Clause 12 of the appointment order. Hence, the impugned order dated 22.07.2024 is unsustainable and the same is hereby quashed.”

The High Court also criticised the DME for issuing the transfer order despite the fact that the petitioner’s services were non-transferable and the earlier transfer order was quashed.

Holding that DME has not only disobeyed the HC order in the earlier round of litigation but also shown disrespect to the orders passed by the Court, the Court ordered,

  “The respondent No.3 despite the fact that the services of the petitioner are non-transferable and knowing well that earlier transfer order was quashed considering Clause 12 of the appointment order, the impugned order has been passed transferring the petitioner to Government Medical College, Seoni. Under these circumstances, the respondent No.3 has not only disobeyed the order passed by this Court in the earlier round of litigation but also has shown disrespect to the orders passed by this Court. The respondent No.3 was well aware of the reason for quashment of the earlier transfer order but despite the same, the impugned order has been passed. Now the respondent No.3 has submitted that the said order has been passed under a mistake. However, this Court is of the considered opinion that the petitioner should be appropriately compensated for the same. Therefore, while quashing the impugned transfer order, this Court deems it appropriate to impose a cost of Rs.25,000/- on the respondents, to be personally borne by the respondent No.3-Director, Medical Education, and to be paid to the petitioner within a period of seven days from the date of this order. The compliance to the aforesaid be reported to this Court. The aforesaid conduct of the respondent No.3 be reported in his service records.”

To read the order, click on the link below:

https://medicaldialogues.in/pdf_upload/mp-hc-order-246980.pdf

Also Read: Madhya Pradesh HC seeks response from DME, GMC over withholding result of Gynaecologist’s Assistant Professor post

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Inconvenient Exam City Allocation: Plea in SC Seeks Postponement of NEET PG 2024 Exam

New Delhi: Amid the uproar from the National Eligibility-and-Entrance Test Postgraduate (NEET-PG) 2024 aspirants over the allocation of exam test centres, a plea has been filed in the Supreme Court seeking postponement of the exam, scheduled to take place on August 11, 2024.

Filing the plea, the petitioner claimed that many candidates who will appear in the exam have been allocated test cities that are highly inconvenient for them to reach, Live Law has reported.

Approaching the top court, the petitioner submitted that the NEET PG 2024 aspirants were allocated test cities on 31.07.2024 and specific centres are scheduled to be declared on 08.08.2024.

While it was done to curb any malpractice in the examination, the petitioner submitted that given the short notice, it became highly difficult for the students to make arrangements for their travel to their specific cities.

Also Read: What a Mess: NEET PG 2024 Candidates take to social media to resenting Exam Center Allocations

As per the latest media report by Live Law, the petition stated, “…more than two lakh students are scheduled to appear in the aforestated examination. The examination is scheduled to be held in 185 test cities therefore resulting in non-availability of train tickets as well as hiking of air fares due to dynamic pricing thereby making it almost impossible for a large number of students to reach their test centres.”

Apart from deferring the exam, the petitioner also sought a disclosure of the normalization formula of the four sets of question papers to the candidates to eliminate any possibilities of arbitrariness.

“The fact that the examinations will be conducted in two batches and that the formula for normalisation is unknown to the candidates thereby causing an apprehension…there is a likelihood that one batch of candidates may face a more difficult question paper than the other batch,” the plea added.

The petitioner has prayed for an order directing the authorities to reschedule the NEET-PG 2024 examination, any other order directing the authorities to conduct the exam in a single batch to ensure that uniform and fair testing environment is given to all candidates.

Further, the petitioner also prayed to the court to issue directions to rectify Examination Centre Allocation Issues and ensure that test centres are allocated more equitably and transparently at nearby places.

Medical Dialogues had earlier reported that the exam city allotment slip for the National Eligibility-and-Entrance Test Postgraduate (NEET-PG) 2024 examination was scheduled to be released by NBEMS on July 31, 2024. Accordingly, on July 31, 2024, students received information about their exam cities.

However, they claimed that NBE allotted them cities that were too far away from their preferred locations. Upset over the “randomly” allotted exam centers, candidates took to social media platforms to express their frustrations. Concerns were raised by Divyangjan candidates as well who had alleged that it would be problematic for them to travel so far away to appear in the exam.

Extending their support to the medical aspirants and raising the issue to the authorities including the Union Health Minister, recently, the doctors under the Federation of All India Medical Association (FAIMA) and the United Doctors Front Association (UDFA) have demanded a re-evaluation and correction of the exam centre allocation process to ensure that all candidates, especially Divyangjan, are allocated exam centres within reasonable distances from their home states.

Also Read: Requests for Changing NEET PG 2024 Exam Centres Shall NOT be entertained: NBE

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Seeking MBBS Admissions 2024 at AIIMS this year? Know eligibility criteria, fee, admission details here

New Delhi- For this year’s MBBS admissions, the AIIMS has released the prospectus for candidates detailing the eligibility criteria and admission procedure.

All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) has provided instructions on the reporting and admission procedure for candidates who will be allotted to AIIMS-New Delhi as per the result of the 1st round of MBBS-seat allotment by MCC for National Eligibility and Entrance Test-Undergraduate (NEET UG) 2024. Meanwhile, the result of the 1st round of counselling for NEET-UG 2024 will be declared by the MCC on August 23, 2024. AIIMS has released a prospectus detailing the fees, age limit, and qualifications for admission to the AIIMS MBBS course.

As per the instructions, candidates who have been allotted AIIMS-New Delhi are required to report at AIIMS, New Delhi from 24th to 29th August 2024 to complete the admission process. The instructions also include the schedule of graduate counselling activities and the list of documents to be submitted at the time of reporting.

The AIIMS Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery (MBBS) degree lasts a minimum of five and a half academic years, including one year of compulsory internship.

As per the schedule, the graduate counselling activities will commence from August 24, 2024, and continue till September 8, 2024. Below are the detailed activities-

S.NO

ACTIVITY

DATES

TIME

1

Verification & submission

of original documents.

24th August 2024 to

August, 2024.

9.30 to 4.00 P.M. ( for verification and submission of original documents).

Except for GH & Holidays: The timings shall be from 10:00 AM To 2:00 PM.

2

Medical Examination and

submission of Academic

Fees.

30th August, 2024.

Reporting at 8.30 A.M.

The medical shall be conducted on 30th August 2024 and on the declaration of Medical Fitness, Candidates are required to pay the requisite Academic Fee as provided in the Prospectus.

3

Hostel Accommodation

and Submission of Hostel Fees.

315′ August, 2024.

After 9:30 A.M. at the Hostel Premises.

On the declaration of Medical Fitness, the candidate has to deposit the requisite fee for hostel accommodation. Hostel accommodation will be done immediately after the submission of fees.

4

Orientation Programme.

2nd September, 2024 to 8th September, 2024.

An orientation programme has been arranged for freshers for their welfare at Conference Hall, which is compulsory to attend for all.

The regular classes will start from 9th September 2024.

Candidates are also required to bring a list of documents with them on the day of reporting. Below is the list of documents

DOCUMENTS

1 Provisional Seat Allotment Letter from MCC.

2 NEET/NTA Scorecard — original print, not photocopy.

3 NTA Admit card — original print, not photocopy.

4 Five Passport size Photographs.

5 Identity Proof (Aadhar Card/ Election Card/Passport or any photo identity proof issued by the Government of India).

6 Certificate of having passed the 10+2 or equivalent Examinations, showing the subject offered by him/her in the Examination.

7 Certificate from the Board from which he/she passed the High School/Higher Secondary Examination, showing his/her date of birth.

8 Certificate/Mark sheet from the Board from which he/she passed the 10+2 or equivalent Examination showing that he/she has secured 60% or more marks (50% in case of SC/ST/Persons & 45% for person with Benchmark Disability) in aggregate in English, Physics, Chemistry and Biology.

9 Migration Certificate from the University/Board last attended by him/her which is applicable only to candidates belonging to Scheduled Caste/Tribe/OBC/EWS/ OPH Category.

However, the candidates who will join the MBBS course at AIIMS, New Delhi, his/her Original certificates will be retained and the same will not be returned to the candidate before completion of the course.

CRITERIA FOR OTHER BACKWARD CLASSES (NON-CREAMY LAYER) [OBC]

Reservation for OBC (Non-Creamy Layer): the certificate must be valid for admission to the Central Government Institute and will be according to the rules of the Government of India. The OBC certificates issued from 1st April 2023 (inclusive) and the start of reporting of Round-1 of the MBBS counselling schedule as notified by (the Medical Counseling Committee for MBBS admission) will be considered valid.

CRITERIA FOR SCHEDULED CASTES / SCHEDULED TRIBES (SC/ST)

Reservation for SC/ST candidates will be according to the rules of the Government of India. Applicants will be required to produce the necessary certificate in the format provided.

CRITERIA FOR PERSONS WITH BENCHMARK DISABILITY (PWBD)

In accordance with the provisions of the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016, 5% of seats of the annual sanctioned intake capacity shall be filled up by candidates with benchmark disabilities, based on the merit list of Entrance Examination 2021. For this purpose, the Specified Disability contained in the Schedule to the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016. The candidate must possess a valid document certifying his/her physical disability. The disability certificate should be certified by a duly constituted and authorized Medical Board of the State or Central Govt. Hospitals/Institutions. All PWBD candidates shall be evaluated by the Medical Board of the Institute to determine eligibility.

Reservation for EWS, the certificate must be valid for admission in Central Government Institutes shall be according to the rules of the Government of India. Applicants will be required to produce the necessary certificate in the format provided at the end of the prospectus in support of his/her claim. The EWS certificates issued from lst April 2023 (inclusive) and the start of reporting of Round-1 of the MBBS counselling schedule as notified by (the Medical Counseling Committee for MBBS admission) will be considered valid.

Meanwhile, to be eligible for admission to the AIIMS MBBS course the candidates should possess the following essential academic qualifications-

1 Candidate Should have passed the 12 Class under the 10+2 Scheme/ Senior School Certificate Examination (CBSE) or Intermediate/Pre-Degree in Science or an equivalent Examination of a recognized University/ Board of any Indian State with ENGLISH, PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY and BIOLOGY as subject. The candidates who have passed 10+2 level with Biology as an additional subject will also be eligible for the MBBS Entrance Examination (as per Hon’ble Delhi High Court Order No.2341/-W/DHC/WRITS/D-1/2019 dated 24/09/2019 in the Writ Petition (C) No. 6773/2019)

2 If the institute has to consider an examination of an Indian university or of a foreign/university to be equivalent to the 12″ class under 10+2 scheme/intermediate science examination, the candidates shall have to produce a certificate from the concerned Indian university/Association of Indian Universities to the effect that the examination passed by him/her is considered to be equivalent to the 12″ class under 10+2 scheme/intermediate science examination.

3 Candidates who have appeared or are appearing at the qualifying Examination with English, Physics, Chemistry and Biology as their main subject and expect to pass the Examination with the required percentage of marks are also eligible to apply in the Competitive Entrance Examination. However, their candidature will be considered only if they provide documentary evidence of having passed the qualifying examination with the required subjects and percentage of marks.

Meanwhile, the general and OBC candidates should obtain 60% and SC/ST candidates should obtain 50% & PWBD candidates should obtain 45% minimum aggregate marks for appearing in this examination. Those with CGPA grades only will have to apply the conversion factor in the application form. The conversion factor should be as approved by their respective examination board.

Moreover, there is no specific quota for OCI & NRI students at AIIMS. Similarly, the Foreign candidates are required to have obtained a minimum of 60% marks in aggregate in the subjects of English, Physics, Chemistry and Biology in their Intermediate/Pre-Degree in Science or an equivalent examination to be eligible for admission to the M.B.B.S. Course at AIIMS, New Delhi. Foreign Nationals who wish to get admitted to the MBBS course at AIIMS, New Delhi have to clear the NEET exam.

FEE DETAILS

Meanwhile, as per the prospectus, for admission into the AIIMS MBBS course, the Indian national candidates have to pay a total of Rs.4228/- and foreign national candidates have to pay Rs.75,000/- which is divided into 3 equal instalments i.e for the pre-clinical phase, para clinical phase and clinical phase of the MBBS course. Payment should be made through cash/card or UPI immediately after the candidate is declared medically fit by the Medical Board of the Institute. Below are the details of the fees for the Indian national candidates-

FEES FOR THE INDIAN NATIONAL CANDIDATES

S.NO

ACADEMIC & OTHER FEES

AMOUNT IN RS

HOSTEL & OTHER FEES

AMOUNT IN RS

1

Registration Fee

25.00

Hostel Rent

990.00

2

Caution Money

100.00

Gymkhana Fee

220.00

3

Tuition Fee

1350.00

Pot Found

1320.00

4

Laboratory Fee

90.00

Electricity Charges

198.00

5

Student Union Fee

63.00

Mess Security(Refundable)

500.00

6

Hostel Security (Refundable)

1000.00

TOTAL

1628.00

TOTAL

4228.00

A total of 125 seats are available for Indian nationals and 7 seats for foreign nationals for admission to AIIMS MBBS. The candidates willing to take admission in the said course must have attained or will attain the age of 17 years as on 31st December of the admission year (2024). Also, candidates born on or before 31st December 2007 are considered eligible for admission.

To view the prospectus, click the link below

https://medicaldialogues.in/pdf_upload/prospectus-246954.pdf

To view the instructions, click the link below

https://medicaldialogues.in/pdf_upload/instructions-246955.pdf

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Doctors cannot be prosecuted for dispensing medicines: Bombay HC

In a significant ruling, the Nagpur bench of Bombay High Court has observed that doctors cannot be prosecuted for dispensing medicines to their patients if they adhere to the Drug Rules of 1945.
This observation was made by the HC bench comprising Justice Govinda Sanap while considering a plea by a Chndrapur-based Psychiatrist, who found was facing criminal proceedings for selling medicines to a patient.
For more information, click on the link below:

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NEET PG 2024 Admit Card OUT, download now

New Delhi- The National Board of Examinations in Medical Sciences (NBEMS) has released the admit card for the National Eligibility and Entrance Test-Postgraduate (NEET PG) 2024. The candidates can download the admit card from the official website of NBE.

NEET PG 2024 is scheduled to be conducted on August 11, 2024, in two shifts i.e. from 9 am to 12:30 pm and 3:30 pm. Earlier, this exam was scheduled to be held on 23rd June 2024. 

Below are the steps to download the NEET PG 2024 exam admit card-

Also Read: NEET PG 2024 Admit Card To Be Released On August 8, Here’s How To Download

STEP 1- Visit NBEMS’s official website.

STEP 2- Look for the link to download the NEET PG 2024 admit card on the homepage or under the “Latest Updates” section.

STEP 3- Enter your credentials, such as NEET PG 2024 application number and password or date of birth, as required.

STEP 4- After logging in, you will be able to view and download your admit card. Make sure to check all the details for accuracy.

STEP 5- Take a printout for future reference.

Meanwhile, along with the NEET PG hall ticket, the exam centre venue in the allotted exam city will also be informed through the admit card on the official website of NBEMS.

For the NEET PG exam 2024, additional security measures are being taken by NBEMS and MoHFW (Govt. of India), therefore NEET PG will now be conducted in 185 test cities across the country. The exam is being held to admit medical graduates into 52,000 postgraduation seats available in India.

SCHEME OF NEET-PG 2024

The NEET PG exam comprises 200 Multiple Choice Questions with each question having 4 options in English only. Candidates are required to select the correct answer out of the 4 response options provided in each question. the examination time to complete the paper is 3 hours and 30 minutes. There shall be a 25% negative marking for incorrect answers. No marks will be deducted for unanswered questions.

Also Read: NEET PG 2024 Exam City Allotment Slip To Be Released Tomorrow, Admit card August 8

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