Chhattisgarh DME Releases Tentative NEET 2024 Counselling Schedule, Registration Begins On August 18

Chhattisgarh- The Directorate of Medical Counselling (DME), Chhattisgarh is going to begin the National Eligibility and Entrance Test-Undergraduate (NEET-UG) 2024 counselling. On this, DME Chhattisgarh has released the tentative schedule of the NEET-UG 2024 counselling state quota.

As per the schedule, the NEET-UG 2024 counselling will begin on August 18, 2024, and end on October 26, 2024, at 5 PM. With this, the registration process will begin from August 18, 2024, and will continue till August 24, 2024. Below is the detailed schedule-

SCHEDULE

S.NO

ROUNDS

ONLINE APPLICATION WITH APPLICATION FEE AND REGISTRATION FEE

CHOICE FILLING/LOCKING

MERIT LIST PUBLICATION

SEAT ALLOTMENT PROCESS

RESULT PUBLICATION

SCRUTINY PROCESS REPORTING )AT THE INSTITUTE)

ADMISSION PROCESS (AT INSTITUTE)

1

Round -1

18/08/2024

to

24/08/2024

18/08/2024

to

25/08/2024

27/08/2024

28/08/2024

to

29/08/2024

30/08/2024

31/08/2024

to

05/09/2024 02:00 pm

31/08/2024

to

05/09/2024 05:00 pm

DAYS

(07-days)

(08-days)

(01-day)

(02-days)

(01-day)

(06-days)

(06-days)

2

Round -2

No Fresh Registration

09/09/2024

to

18/09/2024

No Fresh Merit List

22/09/2024

to

23/09/2024

23/09/2024

24/09/2024

to

27/09/2024 05:00 pm

24/09/2024

to

28/09/2024 01:00 pm

DAYS

(10-days)

(02-days)

(01-day)

(04-days)

(05-days)

3

Mop-up Round

No Fresh Registration

03/10/2024

to

12/10/2024

No Fresh Merit List

15/10/2024

to

16/10/2024

16/10/2024

17/10/2024

to

19/10/2024 01:00 pm

17/10/2024

to

19/10/2024 02:00 pm

DAYS

(10-days)

(02-days)

(01-day)

(03-days)

(03-days)

4

Stray Vacancy Round

No Fresh Registration

21-10-2024

to

23-10-2024

No Fresh Merit List

24/10/2024

24/10/2024

25/10/2024

to

26/10/2024 02:00 pm

25/10/2024

to

26/10/2024 05:00 pm

DAYS

(03-days)

(01-days)

(01-day)

(02-days)

(02-days)

STEPS TO REGISTER FOR CHATTISGARH NEET UG 2024 COUNSELLING

STEP 1- Visit the official website of Chhattisgarh counselling.

STEP 2- Register using a valid email ID and mobile number.

STEP 3- Fill the required details in the application form carefully.

STEP 4- Set a password and choose a security question.

STEP 5- Pay the registration fee as directed by the DME Raipur.

STEP 6- Login ID and password will be sent to the registered email ID.

To view the schedule, click the link below

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Which Top 10 Institutes Providing Highest Stipend to Resident Doctors? Check Details

New Delhi: Recently, the National Medical Commission (NMC) released the data regarding the students admitted through the National Eligibility-and-Entrance Test Postgraduate (NEET-PG) examination 2023, which is available on the official website of the Commission.

Highlighting huge disparity regarding the amount of stipend paid to the resident doctors across the country, the data revealed that while some of the institutes pay the resident doctors as low as Rs 15,000 per month, several institutes pay more than 1 lakh per month to its junior resident doctors.

The top 10 institutes across India that pay the highest amount of stipend to their resident doctors are as follows:

1. University College of Medical Sciences & GTB Hospital New Delhi: 

As per the NMC data, Delhi-based University College of Medical Sciences & GTB Hospital pays the highest amount of stipend to its resident doctors. Students pursuing MD-Anasthesiology, MD Bio-chemistry, MD – Dermatology, Venereology & Leprosy, MD – Forensic Medicine/Forensic Medicine & Toxicology, MD General Medicine, MD Microbiology, MD Ophthalmology, MD Paediatrics, MD Pathology, MD Pharmacology, MD Physiology, MD Radio Diagnosis/Radiology, MD – Social & Preventive Medicine / Community Medicine, MS ENT, MS General Surgery, MS Ob-Gyn, and MS Orthopaedics get Rs 127384 per month as stipend. The institute gives Rs 120965 per month to MD/MS Anatomy students.

2. Army Hospital Research & Referral: 

Army Hospital Research & Referral comes second in terms of the highest stipend. It pays Rs 125000 per month to the MD Microbiology students as a stipend. Further, MD Anaesthesiology residents get Rs 1,20,000 per month, MD Pathology residents get Rs126975 per month as stipend, and MD/MS Ophthalmology, MD Paediatrics, and MS ENT residents get Rs 1,23,994 per month, revealed the NMC data.

3. VP Chest Institute of Medical Sciences, New Delhi: 

The resident doctors pursuing MD Microbiology, MD Physiology and MD – Tuberculosis & Respiratory Diseases / Pulmonary Medicine at VP Chest Institute of Medical Sciences, New Delhi receive Rs 123946 per month as a stipend, while MD-Pharmacology and MD Biochemistry students receive Rs 108799 per month as a stipend.

4. Hindu Rao Hospital, New Delhi: 

Hindu Rao Hospital is one of the top 10 institutes that pay the highest stipend to resident doctors. As per the NMC data, doctors pursuing a Diploma in Anaesthesia at Hindu Rao Hospital receive Rs 123946 per month as a stipend.

5. Institute of Human Behaviour and Allied Sciences, Delhi:

The same amount i.e. Rs 123946 per month is also paid to the resident doctors at the Institute of Human Behaviour and Allied Sciences, Delhi pursuing MD Psychiatry, and a Diploma in Radiation Medicine.

6. ESI-PGIMSR,ESI-Hospital,Basaidarapur,New Delhi: 

All the resident doctors pursuing MD Anaesthesiology, MD – Dermatology ,Venereology & Leprosy, MD General Medicine, MD Microbiology, MD/MS Ophthalmology, MD Paediatrics, MD Pathology, MS General Surgery, MS Ob-Gyn, and MS Orthopaedics at ESI-PGIMSR, ESI-Hospital, Basaidarapur, New Delhi receive Rs 123000 per month as their stipend, revealed the NMC data.

7. Atal Bihari Vajpayee Institute of Medical Sciences and Dr. RML Hospital, New Delhi: 

Atal Bihari Vajpayee Institute of Medical Sciences and Dr. RML Hospital, New Delhi pays Rs 120965 per month stipend to the doctors pursuing MD Anaesthesiology, MD Bio-Chemistry, MD DVL, MD General Medicine, MD Microbiology, MD/MS Ophthalmology, MD Paediatrics, MD Pathology, MD Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation, MD Psychiatry, MD Radiology, MS ENT, MS General Surgery, MS Ob-Gyn, and MS Orthopaedics.

8. Chacha Nehru Bal Chikitsalaya: 

Chacha Nehru Bal Chikitsalaya also pays Rs 120965 per month stipend to its resident doctors pursuing MD Paediatrics. 

9. G.B. Pant Institute of Postgraduate Medical Education and Research, New Delhi:

Resident doctors pursuing MD Biochemistry, MD Pathology, MD Microbiology, and MD Radiology at G. B. Pant Institute of Postgraduate Medical Education and Research, New Delhi get Rs 120965 as their monthly stipend.

10. Employees State Insurance Coporation Medical College, Sanath Nagar, Hyderabad: 

Hyderabad-based Employees State Insurance Corporation Medical College also pays Rs 120965 per month stipend to its resident doctors pursuing various specialities including MD Anaesthesiology, MD Anatomy, MD Bio-Chemistry, MD Community Medicine, MD DVL, MD Emergency Medicine, MD General Medicine, MD – Immuno Haematology & Blood Transfusion, MD microbiology, MD Paediatrics, MD Pathology, MD Pharmacology, MD Physical Medicine & Rehabilitation, MD Physiology, MD Radio Diagnosis, MD Respiratory Medicine, MS General Surgery, MS Ob Gyn, MS Ophthalmology, MS Orthopaedics, and MS Otorhinolaryngology.

11. Mysore Medical College and Research Instt. (Prev.name Government Medical College):

Resident doctors pursuing MD Psychiatry, MD Tuberculosis and Respiratory Diseases, and MS General Surgery at Mysore Medical College and Research Institute receive Rs 119800 per month as a stipend. This makes Mysore Medical College one of the institutes across the country which pay the highest amount of stipend to its resident doctors.

Also Read: From Rs 15k to Rs 1.25 lakh per month: NMC data reveals glaring stipend disparity

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Zydus Lifscience Gets CDSCO Panel Nod to Study Measles and Rubella Vaccine

New Delhi: The drug major Zydus Lifscience has got approval from the Subject Expert Committee (SEC) functional under the Central Drug Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) to conduct the phase IV clinical trial of the vaccine Measles and Rubella Vaccine (Live) I.P. (Freeze Dried).

This came after the firm presented the Phase IV clinical trial protocol of Measles and Rubella Vaccine (Live) I.P. (Freeze Dried) titled “A prospective, randomized, parallel, single-blind, four-arm, active-controlled, multicentre, Phase IV clinical trial to evaluate the immunogenicity and safety of Measles and Rubella Vaccine (Live) I.P. compared to Measles and Rubella vaccine (Live) I.P. (Freeze Dried) of M/s Serum Institute of India Pvt. Ltd. and to evaluate lot-to-lot consistency of Measles and Rubella vaccine (Live) I.P. (Freeze Dried) of M/s Zydus Life sciences Ltd. in healthy infants aged 9-12 months. “

Measles and Rubella Vaccine (Live) I.P. (Freeze Dried) is a sterile, white, dull appearance to a very light pinkish-colored cake, cake turns into clear solution of red to purple colour after reconstitution with diluent.

It’s a live-attenuated viral vaccine that consists of the Edmonston Zagreb strain of measles virus and RA27/3 strain of rubella virus propagated on Human Diploid Cells. The vaccine meets the requirements of I.P. and WHO when tested by the methods outlined in I.P. and WHO, TRS 840 (1994).

Measles causes fever, cough, runny nose, and red, watery eyes, commonly followed by a rash that covers the whole body. It can lead to seizures (often associated with fever), ear infections, diarrhea, and pneumonia. Rarely, measles can cause brain damage or death.

Rubella causes fever, sore throat, rash, headache, and eye irritation. It can cause arthritis in up to half of teenage and adult women. If a person gets rubella while they are pregnant, they could have a miscarriage, or the baby could be born with serious birth defects.

The measles and rubella virus vaccine live is an active immunizing agent used to prevent infection by the measles and rubella viruses. It works by causing the body to produce its own protection (antibodies) against the viruses.

At the recent SEC meeting for Vaccine held on July 31, 2024, the expert panel reviewed the Phase IV clinical trial protocol of Measles and Rubella Vaccine (Live) I.P. (Freeze Dried) presented by the drug Zydus Lifscience.

After detailed deliberation, the committee recommended approval to conduct the Phase-IV clinical trial as per the presented protocol.

Also Read: Justify proposed dose and rationality: CDSCO Panel Tells Lupin on FDC Sacubitril plus Valsartan

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50% of trial sites should be Govt sites, more subjects should be enrolled from Govt sites: CDSCO panel tells AstraZeneca on Baxdrostat study

New Delhi: In line with the drug major AstraZeneca’s protocol amendment proposal to study the cardiovascular drug Baxdrostat, the Subject Expert Committee (SEC) functional under the Central Drug Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) has recommended for amendment as per the condition that at least 50% trial sites should be Govt. sites and more subjects shall be enrolled from Govt. sites.

Furthermore, the expert panel stated investigators in the study should be cardiologists only, and the standard of care along with study medication should be borne by the sponsor.

This came after the firm presented for waiver of condition (i and iii) and notification for acceptance of condition (ii), of clinical trial for protocol No. D6970C00002.

This is a randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled, parallel-group study to assess the efficacy and safety of baxdrostat on the reduction of systolic blood pressure in participants with uncontrolled hypertension on two or more medications including participants with resistant hypertension.

Baxdrostat is an investigational drug that is being evaluated for the treatment of hypertension. It is an aldosterone synthase inhibitor.

Baxdrostat works by preventing the body from making aldosterone, a hormone that regulates the amount of salt in the body. Baxdrostat suppressed blood and urine levels of aldosterone

At the recent SEC meeting for Cardiovascular held on 9th July 2024, the expert panel reviewed the waiver of condition (i and iii) and notification for acceptance of condition (ii), of CT for protocol No. D6970C00002 presented by the drug major AstraZeneca.

After detailed deliberation, the committee recommended an amendment as per the conditions below:-

(i) At least 50% of trial sites should be Govt. sites and more subjects shall be enrolled from Govt. sites

(ii) Investigators in the study should be cardiologists only.

(iii) Standard of care along with study medication should be borne by the sponsor.

Also Read: Union Health Minister emphasizes on continuous dialogue with pharma, medical devices industry to ensure highest quality of products

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Revise Phase III CT Protocol:  CDSCO Panel Tells Windlass Biotech on FDC Tamsulosin Hydrochloride plus Mirabegron

New Delhi: In response to the proposal presented by the drug maker Windlass Biotech, the Subject Expert Committee (SEC) functional under the Central Drug Standard Control Organization (CDSCO) has recommended the firm revise the Phase III clinical trial protocol of the fixed-dose combination (FDC) Tamsulosin Hydrochloride IP (MR) 0.4 mg/0.4 mg plus Mirabegron (ER) 25 mg/50 mg tablets.

This came after the firm presented the proposal along with a bioequivalence (BE) study report and Phase III clinical trial study protocol before the committee.

The expert panel stated that the protocol is not scientifically justified and needs to be revised for better justification. Furthermore, the expert panel added that BPH patient inclusion criteria should be revised for their confirmed diagnosis and the firm should change the comparator arm.

Tamsulosin is used to treat men who have symptoms of an enlarged prostate gland, which is also known as benign enlargement of the prostate (benign prostatic hyperplasia or BPH). Benign enlargement of the prostate is a problem that can occur in men as they get older. The prostate gland is located below the bladder.

Mirabegron, a beta-3 adrenoceptor agonist, has been shown to have a high safety and efficacy profile in large random placebo-controlled clinical trials. Mirabegron is used to treat urgency, urge urinary incontinence, and increased urinary frequency found in the overactive bladder.

At the recent SEC meeting for Urology held on 25th July 2024, the expert panel reviewed the proposal along with a BE study report and Phase III CT study protocol of the Tamsulosin Hydrochloride plus Mirabegron tablets presented by drug major Windlass Biotech.

After detailed deliberation, the committee considered a BE study report. As regards the Phase III clinical trial protocol, the committee opined that:

1. The protocol is not scientifically justified and needs to be revised for better justification.

2. BPH patient inclusion criteria should be revised for their confirmed diagnosis.

3. The firm should change the comparator arm.

Accordingly, a revised Phase III clinical trial protocol should be submitted to CDSCO for further review by the committee.

Also Read: Submit clinical study data conducted in adults: CDSCO Panel Tells Sanofi on atopic dermatitis drug

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NEET PG 2024 Exam Result To Be Declared Soon

New Delhi- After several controversies, the National Board of Medical Examinations (NBMES) successfully conducted the National Eligibility and Entrance Test-Postgraduate (NEET PG) on August 11, 2024. Meanwhile, the NEET PG 2024 result is expected to be declared around the last week of August 2024.

The result will be declared on the official website of NBEMS, therefore, candidates can download and view their respective scorecards from the NBEMS website.

Recently, NBE through a notice informed about the preparation of the NEET PG 2024 result. As per the notice, the result will be prepared by the same process which is currently being used for various examinations conducted by All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) New Delhi in more than one shift including but not limited to the Institutes of National Importance Common Entrance Test (INI-CET) preparation of result.

Below are the steps to download the NEET PG 2024 exam result-

STEP 1- Go to the official website of the NBEMS.

STEP 2- Then tap on the ‘NEET-PG’ option under the Examination section.

STEP 3- The ‘NEET PG 2024 Result,’ tab will open.

STEP 4- Click on the ‘NEET PG 2024 Result,’ option a PDF file be shown.

STEP 5- Open the PDF file, and click on the ‘Click here to view the result of NEET-PG 2024,’.

STEP 6- Enter your Roll Number and view the result.

NEET PG 2024 exam was conducted in two shifts i.e. from 9 am to 12:30 pm and 3:30 pm in 185 test cities across the country. For the conduction of the exam, additional security measures are being taken by NBEMS and MoHFW (Govt. of India).

As per the NBEMS and the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, over 1,950 independent evaluators and 300 flying squad members were deployed at exam centres across India to oversee the conduct of the NEET PG exam.

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Seeking MBBS Admissions 2024 at JIPMER? Know Admission process, Fee structure, Seat Matrix, All Details Here

Puducherry- Jawaharlal Institute of Postgraduate Medical Education & Research (JIPMER) is inviting applications for admission to the Bachelor of Medicine, Bachelor of Surgery (MBBS) course for the academic year 2024-25 at JIPMER Puducherry and Karaikal campuses.

In this regard, JIPMER has released a prospectus giving details of seat distribution, course information, admission procedure, fee structure etc of the MBBS course. Below are the detailed information for the candidates willing to take admission to the MBBS course for the academic year 2024-25 at JIPMER Puducherry and Karaikal campuses.

ADMISSION PROCESS

The counselling for admission to MBBS courses in JIPMER Puducherry and Karaikal campuses will be conducted by the Medical Counselling Committee (MCC), Directorate General of Health Services, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India based on the National Testing Agency (NTA) National Eligibility and Entrance Test (NEET) 2024 All-India scores.

Meanwhile, the counselling and admissions at the Puducherry and Karaikal campuses of JIPMER are considered as separate entities and therefore the admission process will be held at the respective campuses.

The admission process for the JIPMER Puducherry will be held at the JIPMER Academic Centre (JAC), JIPMER, Puducherry. Similarly, the admission process for the JIPMER Karaikaal will be held at the new academic building, JIPMER, Karaikal.

The candidates should bring all the certificates in original, One set of self-attested photocopies of all the certificates and Three Passport size recent colour photographs at the time of admission within the stipulated time, failing which, admission will be denied. Below are the lists of certificates to be submitted at the time of admission-

1 Identity proof.

2 Admit Cards of Exam issued by NTA.

3 Result/ Rank letter issued by NTA.

4 Provisional allotment letters generated through online.

5 Proof of Date of Birth (Birth Certificate or X Std. Certificate).

6 10th Standard Certificate.

7 Pass Certificate of the qualifying examination.

8 Statement of marks of the qualifying examination.

9 Character/ Conduct Certificate from the Head of the Institute last studied.

10 Residence Certificates issued by the Revenue Authority, not below the rank of Tahsildar /Aadhaar card.

11 In the case of Other Backward Classes/ Scheduled Caste/ Scheduled Tribe, a Community Certificate, was recently obtained from the competent authority.

12 Economically Weaker Sections (EWSs) candidates should produce the required Income & Asset Certificate.

13 Transfer/ Migration Certificate from the Head of the Institution last studied.

14 In case of Puducherry residents, the Residence Certificate / Employer Certificate.

15 Medical Certificate from the authorised centres.

With this, all candidates should report within the time mentioned in their ‘allotment letter’, failing which, they will forfeit the right to admission. At any time, if the competent authorities find that admission was sought based on false/ incorrect information/ documents and suppression of relevant facts, educational qualification or quota, the admission offered or the admission already completed will be cancelled, irrespective of the stage of study of that course. Further, legal proceedings will also be initiated against such candidates for such action/(s). Hence, candidates are warned against indulging in such action(s), in their own interest.

Meanwhile, all the parents are also requested to make note of the above provision and take due care and diligence, in all matters concerning admission to the courses.

ADMISSIONS TO THE MBBS COURSE WILL BE REJECTED IN THE FOLLOWING SITUATIONS

1 Candidates who fail to fulfil the prescribed age limit criteria.

2 Candidates who fail to obtain the minimum stipulated marks in the qualifying examination.

3 Candidates who have applied under the Non-Creamy Layer OBC Category and whose subcaste is NOT listed in the current Central OBC List and whose certificate has NOT been submitted in the prescribed format from the Competent Authority.

4 The candidates who have applied under SC/ST Category WITHOUT valid Certificate as in the prescribed format from the Competent Authority.

5 The Candidates who have applied under Puducherry-domicile status with no valid proof.

DURATION

The total duration of the MBBS course at JIPMER Puducherry and Karaikal is 4 years and 6 months followed by one year of Compulsory Rotatory Internship for the award of the Degree. The maximum duration of the course excluding the internship period is 9 years. The maximum permissible duration for each phase will be 4 years and a maximum 4 number of attempts per subject, whichever is earlier. If a candidate fails to complete the course within 9 years, his/her name will be removed from the register of the course.

Each student is required to attend 75% or more of all the scheduled theory and practical classes separately and secure at least 30% internal assessment marks in theory and practical tests separately to be eligible to appear in the Professional Examinations held at the end of each phase. There is no condonation of attendance.

Of the total marks in each subject, the internal assessment will contribute 40% and the final examination will contribute the remaining 60%. This will apply to both the theory and practical/clinical papers separately. The final aggregate marks should be 50% and above in theory and practical papers separately to pass in a subject. However, passing the previous Phase is compulsory before proceeding to the next phase of training.

S.NO

PHASE

DURATION (YEARS)

SUBJECTS

1

I

1

Anatomy, Physiology, Biochemistry.

2

II

1.5

Pharmacology, Microbiology, Pathology, Forensic Medicine.

3

III

1

Ophthalmology, E.N.T, Preventive & Social Medicine.

4

IV

1

Medicine, Pediatrics, Surgery (including Orthopaedics), Obstetrics & Gynaecology

FEE STRUCTURE

The fees should be paid by the candidates through the SBI Collect payment portal for JIPMER. After visiting the portal for JIPMER, Choose the Academic Fee – PHD MSC MPH MBBS BSC BASLP option in the dropdown menu. Meanwhile, it is to be noted that, fees once paid will not be refunded under any circumstances. A hard copy of the fee payment receipt should be submitted on the day of reporting.

As per the fee structure, the total fee for the MBBS course in both JIPMER Puducherry and Karaikal is Rs 14,920/-.

S.NO

DESCRIPTION

FEE IN RS

1

Admission Fee (one time.)

5,000

2

Caution deposit* (one time).

3,000

3

Tuition Fee (annual).

1,200

4

JIPMER Students Association Fee (annual).

2,000

5

Learning Resource Fee (annual).

2,000

6

Corpus Fund on Academic Fee (annual).

70

7

Student Information details (annual).

1500

8

Identity Card (one time).

150.00

GRAND TOTAL

14,920

DISTRIBUTION OF SEATS

The MCC will apply the reservation roster on the seat matrix provided above and publish the reservation category-wise distribution of seats on the MCC official website.

Meanwhile, 5% of the seats are reserved horizontally for the Persons with Benchmark Disability (PwBD) candidates as per the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016. If no eligible candidates are available for a seat allotted for PwBD under a category, the seat will be filled by candidates from the same category.

As per the seat matrix, JIPMER Puducherry has a total of 182 vacant seats and JIPMER Karaikal has a total of 61 vacant seats. MBBS Seats in JIPMER Puducherry and Karaikal campuses for the Academic year 2024-25 are as follows-

SEAT MATRIX FOR JIPMER PUDUCHERRY

S.NO

SEAT CATEGORY

TOTAL

1

Open

134

2

Puducherry UT domicile.

48

GRAND TOTAL

182

SEAT MATRIX FOR JIPMER KARAIKAAL

S.NO

SEAT CATEGORY

TOTAL

1

Open

45

2

Puducherry UT domicile.

16

GRAND TOTAL

61

To view the prospectus, click the link below

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Bone fracture rates in women found to vary dramatically by race

A new paper finds that bone fracture rates in older women differ by race, quite significantly. While researchers have known for years that the risk of bone fracture is highest for White women, this is the first study to show the real fracture rate for Asian and Hispanic women.

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Pioneering research sheds light on how babies and young children understand the art of pretense

Babies recognize pretense and around half of children can pretend themselves by 12 months, new research has found. The study, led by the University of Bristol, shows for the first time how children’s awareness and grasp of pretense in its various forms develops from birth to three years.

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Study highlights potential for using TMAO—a digestive by-product—to predict heart failure risk

New Cleveland Clinic and Tufts University research shows that elevated levels of the gut microbiome trimethylamine N-oxide (TMAO) pathway led to a higher risk of heart failure independent of other risk factors, according to a study of two large National Institutes of Health cohorts. The study was recently published in the journal Circulation: Heart Failure.

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