August 2024 - Page 21 of 94

Meghalaya reports Suspected New Polio Strain, WHO launches investigation

Meghalaya: The World Health Organization (WHO) has launched an investigation into a suspected new strain of the poliovirus identified in the Indian state of Meghalaya. This alert was raised after local health authorities in Meghalaya reported cases of polio-like symptoms. The WHO is now conducting a thorough investigation to determine whether a new strain of polio has affected a two-year-old child from Tikrikilla.

While the State government is awaiting sample test results from laboratories in Kolkata and Mumbai, the Union Health Ministry has indicated that the child’s case is not caused by wild polio. Instead, it appears to be a vaccine-derived infection, which can occur in individuals with low immunity. The test results are anticipated by the end of the week.

According to The Hindu, Dr Lyngdoh mentioned that “Another case of polio has been identified in a different state. Although it appears to be a different strain from the one under investigation in Meghalaya, the WHO is conducting further investigation to confirm this.”

Also Read: 45-year-old poilo survivor successfully undergoes heart transplant at Kamineni Hospitals

She also noted that the State government and the Health Department are closely monitoring the situation in Tikrikilla, a region where there is a history of resistance to vaccination.

She further added that the child is currently under observation and that the family is being closely monitored. According to the attending doctors, the child is in stable condition. She also noted that this case might influence future vaccination efforts.

Dr Lyngdoh did not dismiss the possibility that the WHO might issue an advisory if the new strain is confirmed.

India was declared polio-free in 2014, following the last reported case in 2011 by the World Health Organisation (WHO).

Following the emergence of a poliomyelitis case in Tikrikilla in the West Garo Hills district, Health officials of Meghalaya are on high alert. Chief Minister Conrad K. Sangma reported that the child was diagnosed at a hospital in Goalpara, Assam.

Rare instances of polio have been reported globally. The cases usually involve children who contract the disease after exposure to the weakened virus found in the oral polio vaccine (OPV).

Although OPV has been crucial in eliminating wild polio, the live virus in the vaccine can mutate and lead to vaccine-derived poliovirus. This mutated virus can cause polio in unvaccinated individuals or regions with low immunization coverage.

The WHO has mobilized a team of experts to assist in the investigation. As the investigation into the suspected new polio strain continues, the global health community remains on high alert.

Also Read: UN declares end to Somalia polio outbreak

MBBS, BDS Admissions 2024: WBMCC Notifies On NEET 2024 Counselling, Check quota-wise eligibility criteria

West Bengal- West Bengal Main Computerised Counselling (WBMCC) has released an information bulletin for National Eligibility and Entrance Test-Undergraduate (NEET UG) 2024 counselling in the state for Undergraduate MBBS and BDS State Quota, Private College Management Quota and NRI Quota seats 2024.

As per the information bulletin, the candidates who have qualified through NEET UG 2024 conducted by the National Testing Agency (NTA) and want to participate in the counselling in West Bengal Under Graduate Medical and Dental State Quota and Private College Management Quota and NRI Quota seats 2024, have to follow certain steps as listed below-

Also Read: NEET MDS 2024: WBMCC to hold Round 2 counselling from July 31st, check schedule

STATE QUOTA

The qualified candidate through NEET UG 2024 who wants to participate in WB State Quota UG seats must note that either the candidate or his/her parents must be domiciled in the State of West Bengal. They have to download the domicile certificate proforma from the counselling official website and have to fill appropriate form and get it signed and stamped by the appropriate authority.

The types of domicile certificate proforma that need to be uploaded to the website are described below-

1 Residential/Domicile Certificate for candidates residing in the State of West Bengal continuously for at least the last 10 years as on 31st December of 2023 Candidate must have passed class 10 or equivalent and class 12 or equivalent from the State of West Bengal.

2 Residential/Domicile Certificates for candidates residing in the State of West Bengal continuously for at least the last 10 years as on 31st December of 2023 where the candidate has passed the 10+2 Examination in the year 2024 from West Bengal.

3 Residential/Domicile Certificate for candidates not residing in the State of WB continuously for at least the last 10 years as on 31.12.2023 [that is candidates who have passed either class 10 or class 12 or both from outside West Bengal] but whose parents are permanent resident/s of West Bengal having their permanent home address within West Bengal and living continuously for at least last 10 years in West Bengal as on 31st December of 2023.

During document verification, such certificate in the original has to be produced by the candidate before the verifying authority of the college. Only after successful verification of such certificate, the candidate will be considered for Online Choice filling and Allotment for State Quota seat provided the other required documents are properly in place. A valid Domicile Certificate as applicable which is obtained from the West Bengal e-district portal will also be accepted as proof of domicile.

MANAGEMENT QUOTA

Management quotas in the Private Medical or Dental Colleges in West Bengal in 2024 are also going to be filled up by online counselling which is to be conducted by WBMCC. The UR/EWS candidates with the cut-off of 50 percentile, UR PwD/EWS PwD with the cut-off of 45 percentile and SC/ST/OBC/OBC A/OBC B/SC PwD/ST PwD/OBC PwD/OBC A PwD/OBC B PwD with the cut off 40 percentile are eligible for management quota seats.

Along with this, the candidates who are not domiciled in the State of West Bengal (and not opting for NRI Quota) are also eligible for Management Quota seats in Private Medical/Dental Colleges In West Bengal. For admission in Management Quota seats the domicile certificate is not required for the allotted candidate. However, they are required to produce other essential original documents for verification before online choice filling and allotment and securing admission in the allotted seat. It is to be noted that the allotment In the Management Quota is based purely on the combined merit rank of NEET UG 2024 as there is no caste or PwD reservation in such seats.

Also Read: MBBS, BDS admissions 2024: WBMCC releases Complete Tentative Schedule for NEET Counselling, Registrations begin today, check details

NRI QUOTA

NRI Quota in the Private Medical colleges in West Bengal in 2024 is also going to be filled up by online counselling which is to be conducted by WBMCC. The candidates who opt for the NRI Quota cannot opt for the State Quota/Management Quota.

The candidates who opt to change the status of Indian to NRI have to email the designated email ID of the Medical Counseling Committee (MCC) of DGHS, Govt. of India within the stipulated time to be considered for NRI quota seats. The candidates, who claim for NRI Quota seats under eligible NRI sponsorship, will have to submit the Embassy (Consulate) Certificate of the NRI sponsor. Given the short time frame of document verification, they may submit the proof of application for the Embassy Certificate of the Sponsor at the time of document verification along with recent valid utility bills as applicable In support of such claim. However, in such case, the verification of documents, allotment if any in the NRf Quota seats and subsequent admission shall be purely provisional. If at any stage it is found that the candidate has provided false/forged documents or has provided misinformation regarding the NRI status of self/sponsor, then the candidature shall be summarily rejected.

The OCI (Overseas Citizen of India) cardholders may also apply for NRI Quota seats or else they may also apply as Indian candidates as per their sweet wishes in the counselling process. However, once registered for NRI quota seats they cannot claim back for State Quota/Management Quota seats or vice versa.

CASTE STATUS OF CANDIDATES

If the candidate, who is domiciled in the State of West Bengal, selects OBC A or OBC B while filling up of category in the Online Application form, then the candidate will have to produce a valid certificate issued by the authority in West Bengal only at the Physical Document Verification venue (both in pre and post allotment verification process), otherwise the candidate is treated as Unreserved for allotment of seats in State Quota Counseling provided the candidate has obtained 50 percentile marks (that is the cut off marks for UR (Unreserved) candidate in NEET UG 2024 exam). The OBC A or OBC B candidates if belong to the creamy layer, will not be considered as reserved category candidates. If the OBC A or OBC B certificate is issued before 01.04,2024, then the candidate has to provide the income certificate issued by the same authority who issued earlier caste certificate WB Domicile OBC A or OBC B candidate, who belong to creamy layer or who do not provide proper income certificate in support of being non-creamy layer, will be considered as Unreserved for allotment of seats in State Quota counselling provided the candidate has obtained 50th percentile marks that is the cut-off marks for UR (Unreserved) candidate in NEET UG 2024 exam). Hence the non-creamy layer certificate must be issued by the competent authority on or after 01.04.2024.

If the candidate is not domiciled to the State of West Bengal then he/she will not be considered for State Quota seats irrespective of caste status or PwD status. Such candidates are however eligible to fill up choke for Private college management quota seats.

Candidates who belong to the Economically Weaker Section (EWS) of West Bengal (with or without PwD status) and are domiciled in the State of West Bengal, will be considered as reserved category candidates for West Bengal State Quota seats provided their EWS certificate is successfully verified at the time of document verification process before online choice filling and allotment, otherwise the candidate is treated as Unreserved for allotment of seats in State Quota Counseling provided the candidate has obtained 50 percentile marks [that is the cut-off marks for UR (Unreserved) candidate in NEET UG 2024 exam). Such certificate must be issued by the appropriate authority in the appropriate format on or after 01.04.2024 to be considered a valid document.

PwD STATUS

The candidates who are eligible as per cut-off limits of the 21 benchmark disabilities as envisaged under the Regulations of “The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act 2016” will only be considered in PwD (Person with Disability). Such candidates have verified their PwD status from the Medical Board of IPGME&R Kolkata during the stipulated days. Verification is through the online link provided by the Medical Counseling Committee, DGH5, Govt. of India to the designated centres for issuance of PwD certificate. Certificates from any institute other than IPGMER Kolkata or designated centre as specified by MCC will not be considered for eligibility as a PwD candidate for WB NEET UG 2024 counselling.

MARK SHEET OF 10+2 EXAMINATION

In Physics, Chemistry and Biology taken together in the 10+2 Examination, UR/EWS candidates, UR-PwD/EW5-PwD category candidates, and SC/ST/OBC-A/OBC-B (with or without PwD status) candidates must obtain 50%, 45% and 40% marks respectively to be eligible for taking part in counselling. They must also pass Physics, Chemistry, Biology & English individually in the 10+2 examination. This is an essential criterion to become eligible for counselling.

AGE

Age should be at least 27 years by 31.12.2024. Date of birth must be on or before 01.01.2008 to become eligible. This is an essential criterion to become eligible for counselling.

MEDICAL FITNESS CERTIFICATE

The format is provided on the counselling official website and the candidate has to obtain fitness in the same format from a Registered Medical Practitioner to become eligible for admission to the seat allotted through counselling. The medical fitness is an essential criterion.

After the above information is furnished by the candidate, if the candidate is eligible for fee payment then he/she will be directed to the online payment gateway where he/she can pay the non-refundable counselling fee online only through credit card/debit card/net banking/UPI payment facilities Online Counseling fees is Rs 2000/• for Unreserved candidates and Rs 1500/- for SC/ST/DBC/OBC A /0BC B/PwD/EWS candidates. Bank transaction cost if any is to be borne by the candidate concerned in addition. Payment receipts may be downloaded and printed from the candidate’s login.

If the payment is successful the candidate profile letter is generated which can be downloaded from the candidate log-in, where all the transaction details are there. It is hereby further mentioned that the generation of a candidate profile letter is mandatory for the Physical Document verification of candidates, as the venue/date/time everything will be mentioned in that candidate profile letter only.

Candidates have to bring the hard copy of that candidate’s profile letter and payment receipt during Physical document verification otherwise no verification will be done.

DOCUMENTS

The candidates also have to produce certain documents such as NEET UG 2024 Admit card, rank card age proof, etc. in original with self-attested photocopy for Physical Document Verification at the allotted college.

To view the information bulletin, click the link below

https://medicaldialogues.in/pdf_upload/wbmcc-notifies-on-neet-ug-2024-counselling-for-state-quota-private-management-quota-nri-seats-249231.pdf

European Commission approves Janssen-Cilag Balversa for adult patients with metastatic urothelial carcinoma

Belgium: Janssen-Cilag International NV, a Johnson & Johnson company, has announced that the European Commission (EC) has approved BALVERSA (erdafitinib) as a once-daily oral monotherapy for the treatment of adult patients with unresectable or metastatic urothelial carcinoma (mUC), harbouring susceptible FGFR3 genetic alterations who have previously received at least one line of therapy containing a PD-1 or PD-L1 inhibitor in the unresectable or metastatic treatment setting.

“Bladder cancer is one of Europe’s most common cancers and the need for innovative treatment options for people living with unresectable or metastatic urothelial carcinoma remains high,” said Yohann Loriot, M.D., Ph.D., Institut Gustave Roussy and University of Paris-Saclay, France.* “Erdafitinib is a novel, targeted therapy that has been shown to significantly improve overall and progression-free survival for patients with FGFR3 alterations, who, until now, have had limited options available.”

Europe has the highest rate of bladder cancer compared to all continents globally, with nearly a quarter of a million people diagnosed in 2022, representing a 10 percent increase from 2020. Urothelial carcinoma (UC) is the most common form of bladder cancer, and up to 20 percent of patients with mUC have FGFR alterations. Prognosis remains particularly poor for patients with mUC, with only eight percent of people diagnosed at a late metastatic stage surviving for five years.

“This important milestone emphasises the vital role of targeted therapies in addressing the unique genetic and disease characteristics of patients living with urothelial cancer, and reinforces our dedication to advancing cutting-edge, precision treatments in oncology,” said Henar Hevia, Ph.D., Senior Director, EMEA Therapeutic Area Lead, Oncology, Johnson & Johnson Innovative Medicine. “The approval of erdafitinib as a precision therapy further highlights the importance of FGFR testing for all patients with metastatic urothelial cancer, and the need for a multi-disciplinary team approach to optimise outcomes for each patient.”

Also Read:CDSCO Panel denies Nacto Pharma’s request To Waive Phase III CT of Anticancer Erdafitinib tablet

Erdafitinib received EC approval based on results from Cohort 1 of the Phase 3 THOR study (NCT03390504), evaluating the efficacy and safety of erdafitinib (n=136) versus chemotherapy (n=130) in patients with advanced or mUC with select FGFR alterations who have progressed on or after one or two prior treatments, at least one of which includes an anti-PD-(L)1 agent.

In June 2023, based on the recommendation of the independent data safety monitoring committee, the THOR study was stopped following the interim efficacy analysis and all patients randomised to chemotherapy (docetaxel or vinflunine) were offered the opportunity to receive erdafitinib as crossover therapy.The results demonstrate median overall survival (OS) of over one year was achieved in patients receiving erdafitinib at the data cut-off, marking a significant improvement as compared to those in the chemotherapy arm (12.1 months vs. 7.8 months; hazard ratio [HR], 0.64; 95 percent confidence interval [CI], 0.44 to 0.93; P=0.0050). Treatment with erdafitinib also showed an improvement in median progression-free survival (PFS) compared to chemotherapy of 5.6 months versus 2.7 months (HR 0.58; 95 percent CI, 0.41 to 0.82; P=0.0002) and confirmed overall response rate (ORR) of 35.3 percent versus 8.5 percent.

“The EC approval of erdafitinib reflects our unwavering commitment to transforming outcomes for people living with unresectable or metastatic urothelial carcinoma,” said Kiran Patel, M.D., Vice President, Clinical Development, Solid Tumours, Johnson & Johnson Innovative Medicine. “We look forward to continuing our research and development efforts to bring new hope and improved outcomes to more patients in the future.”

In addition to the EC approval, in January 2024 Johnson & Johnson obtained U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approval of erdafitinib for the treatment of adult patients with locally advanced or mUC with susceptible FGFR3 genetic alterations, whose disease has progressed on or after at least one line of prior systemic therapy, based upon Cohort 1 of the Phase 3 THOR study.

In 2008, Janssen Pharmaceutica NV entered into an exclusive worldwide licence and collaboration agreement with Astex Therapeutics Limited to develop and commercialise erdafitinib.

Urothelial carcinoma (UC) starts in the innermost lining of the bladder. Almost all bladder cancers – more than 90 percent – are UCs. Up to one in five patients (20 percent) diagnosed with mUC have a fibroblast growth factor receptor (FGFR) genetic alteration. FGFRs are a family of receptor tyrosine kinases that can be activated by genetic alterations in a variety of tumour types, and these alterations may lead to increased tumour cell growth and survival. FGFRs play a key role in several biological processes, including tissue repair, inflammatory response and metabolism. Fusions or mutations in the genes that control FGFR (known as FGFR1–4 alterations) may lead to the development and progression of certain cancers by increasing tumour cell growth and survival. Patients with advanced UC, including FGFR-driven tumours, face a poor prognosis and the need for innovative therapies remains high. The five-year survival rate for patients with metastatic bladder cancer that has spread to distant parts of the body is currently 8 percent.

Also Read:Natco Pharma seeks USFDA nod for generic Erdafitinib Tablets

NTRUHS issues notice on exam for PwBD candidates seeking MBBS, BDS Admissions 2024 under competent quota, Details

Andhra Pradesh- Through a recent notice, the NTR University of Health Sciences (NTR) , Andhra Pradesh informed about the Examination of persons with disabilities (PwBD) Candidates seeking MBBS and BDS Admissions in the state under competent quota.

It is hereby informed that the candidates who have registered under Persons with Benchmark Disabilities (PwBD) Quota shall appear before University Medical Board with all original certificates and medical records pertaining to the disability along with a recent passport size photo at Dr. NTR University of Health Sciences, Vijayawada without fail as per the schedule, said the notice.

As per the notice, candidates who can apply under the category of (PwBD) can appear for the exam which commences on August 27, 2024 10.00 AM onwards and ends on August 28, 2024, Venue for the same is Silver Jubilee Block, 2nd Floor, Dr. NTR University of Health Sciences, Vijayawada for both the days.

List of candidates applied under (PwBD) category is displayed on the University website. The candidates who do not attend before the University Medical Board as per the schedule notified will not be considered for admission under Persons with Benchmark Disabilities (PwBD) Quota.

Also Read:Dr NTR University Of Health Sciences Informs On Free Exit For Phase 1 MBBS Candidates, Details

Schedule:

Date & Time

Venue

Sr. No

From To

27.08.2024
from 10.00 AM onwards

Silver
Jubilee Block, 2nd Floor, Dr. NTR University of Health Sciences, Vijayawada

01 to 50

28.08.2024
from 10.00 AM onwards

Silver
Jubilee Block, 2nd Floor, Dr. NTR University of Health Sciences, Vijayawada

51 to Last Candidate

Also Read:Dr YSR University of Health Sciences Issues Notice On Second Phase Counselling Web Options For Post Basic BSc Nursing Admissions, Details

To view the notice click the link below

https://medicaldialogues.in/pdf_upload/ntr-24-08-249420.pdf

MBBS 2024 in AIIMS Mangalagiri, Here are complete admission details

Andhra Pradesh- The All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS), Mangalagiri has released information bullttein detailing eligibility criteria, schedule, seat matrix and much more for the candidates seeking admissions to MBBS course at the institute.

As per the prospectus, there are 51 seats for Unreserved / General / Open Category (UR), there are 12 seats for Economically Weaker Section (EWS) – 10 %, there are 34 seats for Other Backward Classes – Non-Creamy Layer (OBC NCL) Category – 27 %, there are 18 seats for Scheduled Classes (SC) – 15 %, there are 10 seats for Scheduled Tribes (ST) Category – 7.5 %, there are Total 125 of seats including all categories.

All the concerned candidates seeking MBBS Admissions in All
India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS), Mangalagiri College are advised to
take note of the following schedule: –

Eligibility
Criteria for Admission to MBBS Course at AIIMS, Mangalagiri:

Nationality:

• Indian Nationals

• Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) Cardholders eligible for
appearing for NEET as per criteria mentioned in the Medical Counselling
Committee (MCC) Information Bulletin.

Age:

• Candidates who have attained or will attain the age of 17
(seventeen) years on 31st of December of the year of admission.

Essential Academic Qualification:

• Essential academic qualifications shall be as per the NEET
UG / MCC Information Bulletin.

• Candidates Should have passed the 12th Class under the
10+2 Scheme / Senior School Certificate Examination (CBSE) or Intermediate
Science (I. Sc.) or an equivalent Examination of a recognized University /
Board of any Indian State with ENGLISH, PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY and BIOLOGY as
subjects. The candidates who have passed 10+2 level with Biology as an
additional subject will also be eligible for MBBS Entrance Examination (as per
Hon’ble High Court Order No.2341/-W/DHC/WRITS/D-1/2019 dated 24/09/2019 in the
Writ Petition (C) No. 6773/2019).

• Candidates who have appeared or are appearing for the
qualifying Examination with English, Physics, Chemistry and Biology as main
subject and expect to pass the Examination with required minimum marks are also
eligible to apply and appear in the Competitive Entrance Examination. However,
their candidature will be considered only if they provide documentary evidence
of having passed the qualifying examination with the required subjects and
minimum marks.

• If the institute has to consider an examination of an
Indian university or of a foreign university to be equivalent to the 12th class
under 10+2 scheme / Intermediate Science examination, the candidates shall have
to produce a certificate from the concerned Indian University / Association of
Indian Universities to the effect that the examination passed by him / her is
considered to be equivalent to the 12th class under 10+2 scheme / Intermediate
Science examination.

Minimum Qualifying Marks:

• The minimum qualifying marks for AIIMS are different from
those prescribed by MCC for other medical colleges as mentioned in the NEET UG
/MCC Information Bulletin.

• Minimum aggregate marks in ENGLISH, PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY and
BIOLOGY obtained in the qualifying examination (as in the essential
qualification) required for appearing in this examination are:

a) 60 % for General and OBC candidates

b) 50 % for SC / ST candidates and

c) 45 % for PWBD candidates

• Candidates with CGPA grades only will have to apply the
conversion factor (As approved by their respective examination board) in the
application form.

Number of
Seats and Reservation:

• Total of 125 (One Hundred and Twenty Five) seats for
Indian Nationals are available for admission to MBBS Course at AIIMS,
Mangalagiri.

• Reservation policy as per Government of India is applied
and the seat matrix for MBBS Course at AIIMS, Mangalagiri is as follows:

S. No.	Category	No. of Seats
1	Unreserved / General / Open Category (UR)	51
2	Economically Weaker Section (EWS) – 10 %	12
3	Other Backward Classes – Non Creamy Layer (OBC NCL) – 27 %	34
4	Scheduled Classes (SC) – 15 %	18
5	Scheduled Tribes (ST) – 7.5 %	10
	Total	125

* As per the provisions of Rights of Person with Disability
(PWD) Act 2016, 5 % seats are reserved for Persons with Benchmark Disability
(PwBD) on horizontal & category basis amongst the seats available.

Criteria
for claiming reservation in different category of seats for MBBS Course at
AIIMS, Mangalagiri:

Economically Weaker Section (EWS) – Reservation
for EWS shall be according to the rules of Government of India. Candidates are
required to produce the necessary certificate in the prescribed format in
support of his / her claim. The EWS Certificate issued by the competent
authority between 1st April 2023 (inclusive) and start of reporting of Round –
1 of MBBS Counselling schedule as notified by (Medical Counselling Committee
for MBBS admission) will be considered valid.
Other Backward Classes Non Creamy Layer (OBC –
NCL) – Reservation for OBC – NCL shall be according to the rules of the
Government of India. Candidates are required to produce the necessary
certificate in the prescribed format clearly mentioning that he / she does not
belong to the persons / sections (Creamy Layer) mentioned in Column 3 of the
Schedule to the Government of India, Department of Personnel & Training
O.M. No. 36012/22/93- Estt. (SCT) dated 08/09/93 which is modified vide OM No.
36033/3/2004 Estt. (Res.) dated 09/03/2004 or the latest notification of the
Government of India (i.e. Central list). The OBC – NCL Certificate issued by
the competent authority between 1st April 2023 (inclusive) and start of
reporting of Round – 1 of MBBS Counselling schedule as notified by (Medical
Counselling Committee for MBBS admission) will be considered valid.
Scheduled Classes (SC) / Scheduled Tribes (ST) –
Reservation for SC / ST will be according to the rules of Government of India.
Candidates are required to produce the necessary certificate in the prescribed
format (ANNEXURE – 3) clearly mentioning that he / she belongs to Scheduled
Caste or Scheduled Tribe as prescribed in M.H.A., O.M., No. 42/21/49-N.G.S.
dated the 28.1.1952, as revised in Dept. of Per-& A.R. letter No.
36012/6/76-Est. (S.CT), dated the 29.10.1977.
Person with Benchmark Disability (PwBD) –
Reservation for PwBD will be in accordance with the provisions of the Rights of
Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016. Candidates are required to produce the
necessary certificate in the prescribed format clearly mentioning that he / she
belongs to Persons with Benchmark Disability Category along with percentage of
disability. Disability certificate should be issued by a duly constituted and
authorized Medical Board of the State or Central Govt. Hospitals / Institutions
as mentioned in the Medical Counselling Committee (MCC) Information Bulletin.
Specified Disabilities under the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016
with respect to admission in MBBS Course.

Procedure
for MBBS Admission at AIIMS, Mangalagiri:

General
Instructions:

• Please read the instructions provided by Medical
Counselling Committee (MCC) regarding the process of reporting and taking
admission from the website of MCC.

• Candidates who have been allotted MBBS Seat at AIIMS,
Mangalagiri by MCC need to report at AIIMS, Mangalagiri Auditorium for
completing the process of admission as per the schedule provided by MCC (24th
August 2024 – 29th August 2023 for the 1st Round).

• Candidates need to report physically for verification of
their eligibility and bring all the original certificates / testimonials /
documents as mentioned below.

• All the original certificates of the candidates getting
admission for MBBS at AIIMS, Mangalagiri shall be retained and shall be
returned to the candidates only after completion of the course.

• Subsequent to successful document verification &
submission, all candidates shall be evaluated by a Medical Board of the
Institute. All medically fit candidates will be issued admission letter and
have to complete Fee Payment & Hostel Accommodation Process.

• Candidates should be prepared for an additional day as
admission process and medical examination may spill over to next day

• Any candidate who wishes to discontinue the course after
completion of the process shall be liable to pay sum of Rs. 5,000/- (Five
thousand only) by way of compensation / losses incurred by AIIMS due to such
midstream departure. (Subject to revision)

List of
Documents to be brought on the day of Reporting:

• Examination and Counselling related:

a) National Testing Agency (NTA) Admit card.

b) National Eligibility cum Entrance Test (NEET) / NTA Score
card – Original Print

c) Provisional Seat Allotment Letter from MCC

d) Proof of Identity – Aadhar Card / Election Card / Pan
Card / Passport / Any Photo Identity proof issued by Government of India.

e) Ten Passport size Colour Photographs of the Candidate

Fees
& Other Payments:

• Fees and other dues are to be paid in cash after the
candidate has been declared medically fit by the Medical Board of AIIMS,
Mangalagiri.

• MBBS Course and Hostel Fee details:

Sr. No.	Academic & Others	Amount	Hostel & Others	Amount
1	Registration Fee	25.00	Hostel Rent	990.00
2	Caution Money	100.00	Gymkhana Fee	220.00
3	Tuition fee	1350.00	Pot Fund	1320.00
4	Laboratory Fee	90.00	Electricity Charges	198.00
5	Student Union Fee	63.00	Mess Security (Refundable)	500.00
6			Hostel Security (Refundable)	1000.00
	Total	1628.00	Total	4228.00

* Above fees are subject to Revision.

• A total of Rs. 5,856/- (Five thousand eight hundred and
fifty six/-) to be deposited in Cash in AIIMS, Mangalagiri Account using Fee
Challan in the State Bank of India, AIIMS, Mangalagiri Branch.

Also Read:12 Seats Vacant in AIIMS Mangalagiri for MSc Nursing Admissions August 2024 Session

To view the prospectus click the link below

https://medicaldialogues.in/pdf_upload/aiims-manglagiri-2-249363.pdf

HCG ICS Khubchandani Cancer Hospital, Colaba doctors give new lease of life to Fiji woman with advanced Tongue Cancer

Mumbai: In January 2024, Susan, an Indian descent and a resident of an island nation, was treated for Squamous cell Carcinoma of the Tongue, i.e. cancer on the lining of her tongue, at HCG ICS Khubchandani Cancer Hospital, Colaba, by a team of experts.

The team was led by Dr Sachin Trivedi, Medical Oncologist; and included Dr Bhavin Visariya, Radiation Oncologist and Dr Akash Tiwari, Head and Neck Surgeon. Susan was diagnosed in New Zealand and had reached out to HCG ICS Khubchandani Cancer Hospital, Colaba for the treatment.

The 31-year-old Susan was having trouble speaking and swallowing and was also vomiting blood. The doctors at HCG ICS Khubchandani Cancer Hospital, Colaba, conducted a detailed scan of her neck and chest which showed that there was a lump present on the right side of her tongue and extended out to the middle and back of the throat. This growth affected the surrounding muscles and was compressing the windpipe in the throat.

Also Read:HCG acquires Vizag-based Mahatma Gandhi Cancer Hospital and Research Institute for Rs 414 crore

The scan also highlighted several swollen glands under her jaw in the neck region. On further examining the scan reports, doctors found that the patient had advanced cancer on the right side of her tongue which could not be treated by surgery. Recognizing the seriousness of her situation, the efficient team of doctors at HCG ICS Khubchandani Cancer Hospital, Colaba, decided to follow a personlised systemic therapy approach wherein she was treated with chemotherapy and immunotherapy.

Immunotherapy is a treatment wherein an individual’s own immune system is used to fight cancer. It can play a vital role in the treatment of oral cancer, lung cancer, kidney cancer, head and neck cancer etc. It improves long term survival chances by preventing cancer cells from spreading further and recharges the immune system to help continue fighting cancer even after the treatment has stopped. Another advantage of immunotherapy is that on average, a patient experiences lesser severe side effects than those associated with traditional treatments for cancer.

The combination of doctors’ expertise, world class technology, and immunotherapy produced a promising result wherein the patient’s cancer showed a dramatic response to treatment. There was a near total radiological response to treatment with less than 10% of cancer bulk was visible after just one cycle of treatment

Dr. Sachin Trivedi, the Director of Medical Oncology at HCG ICS Khubchandani Cancer Hospital, Colaba, who led the team of doctors in this case, said, “It was one of the most complicated cases that we had handled due the immune related toxicties the nature and extent of her disease and associated medical problems. The cancer had reached an advanced stage and immediate treatment was of utmost importance. If not attended to on time, it could have become life threatening. We had to treat the patient with paramount care and precision.

The advancements in medical technology along with treatments like immunotherapy played a pivotal role in timely diagnosis and treatment of cancer. This is a remarkable case which displays the power of medicine, technology and expertise to bring quick positive results within just one cycle of treatment.”

Susan, who was discharged from the hospital in June 2024, said “I have been given a second chance at life and for that I am grateful. Surviving cancer has taught me a whole lot about the power of hope and resilience and I will carry these lessons with me forever. Going forward I will live my life with joy and to the fullest. I am thankful to the medical team at HCG ICS Khubchandani Cancer Hospital, Colaba, they stood by me throughout my recovery and were constant source of encouragement and comfort.”

Susan has made a full recovery and will have completion radiotherapy back home after which she can resume her normal life.

Also Read:Doctors at HCGMCC successfully remove Large Neuroectodermal Tumour from neck of 56-year-old patient

Repeated failure to fulfil NMC norms: Medical College slapped Rs 10 lakh fine for ‘Misleading’ High Court

Chandigarh: While considering a plea filed by White Medical College and Hospital, previously known as Chintpurni Medical College and Hospital, the Punjab and Haryana High Court recently slapped a fine of Rs 10 lakh on the institute for “misleading” the court.

Filing the plea, the college was contesting an order issued in January by the Medical Assessment and Rating Board (MARB) of the National Medical Commission (NMC), through which the Commission directed the transfer of students from the 2021-2022 and 2022-2023 batches to other medical colleges.

However, while considering the matter, the HC Division bench comprising Chief Justice Sheel Nagu and Justice Anil Kshetarpal observed that the college had repeatedly and continuously failed to comply with the required standards.

Also Read: 250 Chintpurni MBBS Medicos Accuse Management of Harassment, Vacate Hostels

As per the latest media report by the Times of India, the HC bench also opined that it was inappropriate for NMC to grant the college conditional permission to admit MBBS students during the 2020-2021 and 2021-2022 academic sessions.

Hindustan Times has reported that the Court further added that NMC needed to thoroughly re-look and introspect the manner in which the limited permissions of provisional recognition and affiliations were being granted.

“This practice has resulted in putting at risk the career of the innocent students as well as the health of community which would include experts and their families,” it said.

Upholding the Medical Assessment and Rating Board’s authority to order the mass transfer of the students, the HC Division bench dismissed the plea filed by the college.

“Even the students who are likely to be adversely affected were not impleaded as respondents. All these facts have been stated by the students in their written statements who subsequently became party while filing applications,” it further observed.

Additionally, the HC bench took note of the fact that the college did not disclose the previous court orders. Taking action against the college’s deliberate concealment of adverse judicial orders from 2012 to 2017, the Court imposed a cost of Rs 10 lakh on the college and directed the college to deposit the amount with the PGIMER Poor Patients Welfare Fund.

Chintpurni Medical College Controversy:

Medical Dialogues had extensively reported about the controversial shutdown of Chintpurni Medical College after the Board of Governors of the erstwhile Medical Council of India (MCI) had found that the institute was admitting students without the MCI approval ever since its inception in 2011. In addition, the college did not have the necessary infrastructure and did not provide adequate facilities for the purpose of medical studies.

Consequently, the Executive Committee of MCI recommended debarring the College from admitting students for two academic years i.e. 2017-18 and 2018-19 and to encash the bank guarantee of Rs 2 crores that was furnished by the petitioner at the time of grant of recognition dated 26.09.2016. The Central Government had accepted the MCI recommendation.

Following this, the 2011-12 and 2014-15 batch of students were shifted to other medical colleges in the state on the directions of the Supreme Court after the students sought to transfer to other medical colleges in the state. The top court had also dismissed the plea challenging the Central Government orders and had stated that the college would be entitled to pursue the permission for the academic years 2019- 20 and 2020-21 after the period of the ban.

However, in 2022 NMC granted its permission to Chintpurni Medical College to admit students in 150 MBBS seats after inspecting the infrastructure of the medical college.

The controversy started once again last year after a five-member panel of BFUHS found glaring deficiencies in the medical college in terms of patient load as well as faculty and infrastructure. The BFUHS panel had stated in a report that the medical college does not have adequate infrastructure and the careers of MBBS students at the medical college were getting jeopardized because of the absence of patients, infrastructure, and teachers. Following this, the Punjab Government took cognisance of the matter.

In a letter directed to the Director of NMC, the State Additional Chief Secretary of Medical Education and Research, Anurag Agarwal had referred to the issue as a matter of grave concern and pointed out that despite earning the NMC nod, the college was not complying with the statutory regulations and guidelines.

Following this, NMC conducted an inspection and found serious deficiencies in terms of faculty, patient load and infrastructure. Based on this, NCM refused permission to the medical college to admit MBBS students for the academic year 2023-2024.

Earlier this year, granting relief to the medical students who had been admitted to Chintpurni Medical College, Punjab, and Haryana High Court had directed the NMC and Punjab Government to shift the students of Chintpurni Medical College in Pathankot to other colleges.

Also Read: HC relief: NMC to now transfer MBBS students of Chintpurni Medical College to Other institutes

Basirhat Hospital vandalised; Doctor, 3 staffers assaulted after death of patient

Kolkata: As resident doctors in Bengal are demanding adequate security at medical colleges and hospitals in light of the brutal rape and murder of a PG trainee, a shocking incident of vandalism occurred at Basirhat Super Speciality Hospital where four staff members including a doctor were allegedly attacked following the death of a patient.

Accusing the doctors and hospital staff of gross negligence, the relatives of the deceased patient allegedly vandalised the hospital damaging computers, furniture, and other hospital property in a fit of rage after losing their patient during treatment at the hospital.

It is reported that they attacked the doctors, nurses, and other hospital personnel and assaulted them which resulted in serious injuries. Additionally, three visitors also sustained harm as a result of the purported vandalism that occurred during the incident.

Also read- Kolkata Doctor rape-murder case: What was the mob attack at RG Kar hospital all about?

As per The Telegraph news report, the relative claimed that they had sought medical assistance from the hospital staff for the patient but the treatment was delayed which they believe led to the death of their patient.

The incident took place on Friday afternoon after a 35-year-old patient who was a resident of Ramchandrapur-Narkelberia village in Baduria was admitted to the hospital on Thursday night with a complaint of chest pain. However, he unfortunately passed away the next day.

This led to the anger of the relatives who stormed the hospital accompanied by some villagers. They entered the emergency sections and destroyed the equipment including valuable items from the hospital. The incident caused panic among other patients and their relatives who were present at the scene.

After the incident, the hospital authorities called the police immediately. As the situation went out of control, a large contingent of Rapid Action Force (RAF) and combat force personnel were pressed into action.

After bringing the situation under control, the hospital authorities filed a complaint at the police station and a case was registered in this regard.

Meanwhile, one of the relatives involved with the incident claimed “We requested for a visit of a doctor multiple times for better management of the patient’s condition, but no one bothered to attend to him as his condition deteriorated.”

“We understand and support the doctors’ grievances. But at the same time, they are neglecting their duties,” a relative of the patient said.

Refuting the negligence allegations, the Superintendent of the hospital Ranjan Roy told The Telegraph, “There was no negligence and the family members were apprised about his poor condition. But they didn’t realise it and blamed us for death. They attacked our staff created panic among other patients and their relatives and vandalised our establishment.”.

Following the attack, the police personnel enhanced the security at the hospital and an investigating officer in this regard said, “The offenders have been identified and will be arrested soon.”

Also read- Duty doctor attacked by patient’s kin at Vijayawada Hospital, Junior Doctors on strike

Submit details of adverse events reported: CDSCO Panel Tells GSK on Mepolizumab Powder for Solution for Injection

New Delhi: In line with the Phase IV clinical trial report of the monoclonal antibody Mepolizumab (Brand Name: Nucala 100 mg) presented by the drug major GlaxoSmithKline Pharmaceuticals, the Subject Expert Committee (SEC) functional under the Central Drug Standard Control Organization (CDSCO) has opined the firm to submit the detailed elaboration of adverse events reported in the study.

This came after the drug maker GlaxoSmithKline Pharmaceuticals presented the results of a Phase-4 clinical study titled ‘A Phase 4, open-label, single arm, 24-week, phase 4 study to evaluate the safety and efficacy of Mepolizumab 100 mg SC administered every 4 weeks in Indian Participants ages > 12 years with severe eosinophilic asthma requires oral corticosteroid treatment to maintain asthma control (PRISM)’ vide Protocol No. 209682 amendment No. 4 dated 23.08.2022.

Mepolizumab is a fully-humanized monoclonal IgG1 kappa anti-IL-5 antibody used in conjunction with other therapies to treat severe asthma, eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis, and hypereosinophilic syndrome.

Mepolizumab was first approved by the FDA on November 4, 2015, as an add-on therapy for severe asthma and marketed under the brand name Nucala by GlaxoSmithKline.

Mepolizumab binds to IL-5, blocking its binding to the alpha chain of the IL-5 receptor complex. This inhibits IL-5 signaling, reducing the production and survival of eosinophils. It may cause hypersensitivity reactions (e.g., anaphylaxis, angioedema, bronchospasm, hypotension, urticaria, and rash).

At the recent SEC meeting for pulmonary held on August 6, 2024, the expert panel reviewed the results of a Phase-4 clinical study to evaluate the safety and efficacy of Mepolizumab 100 mg SC administered every 4 weeks in Indian participants ages > 12 years with severe eosinophilic asthma who require oral corticosteroid treatment to maintain asthma control (PRISM).

After detailed deliberation, the committee recommended the firm submit the detailed elaboration of AE’s (adverse events) reported in the study for further evaluation by the committee.

Also Read: Bristol Myers Squibb India Gets CDSCO Panel Nod to Study anticancer drug Mezigdomide

Health Bulletin 24/ August/ 2024

Here are the top health stories for the day:

Gujarat Medical Council suspends licenses of 4 specialist doctors for negligence, insurance fraud

Finding four specialist doctors in the State guilty of malpractice and negligence, the Gujarat Medical Council (GMC) has suspended their licenses during a special hearing.

The medical council took this decision during a meeting chaired by the former Dean of GMERS Medical College, Sola, Dr. Nitin Vora. Among these four doctors, the licences of three of them were suspended for one month. Meanwhile, the council suspended the fourth doctor’s license until he appeared before the council for a hearing.