Roche Gets CDSCO Panel Nod to Study anti-cancer Drug Giredestrant for Breast Cancer

New Delhi: The drug major Roche has got approval from the Subject Expert Committee (SEC) functional under the Central Drug Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) to conduct the clinical trial of the anti-cancer drug Giredestrant compared with Fulvestrant, Palbociclib, Ribociclib, Abemaciclib.

This came after the drug major Roche presented Phase III clinical trial protocol No. CO44657.

This is a Phase III, randomized, open-label multicenter study that will evaluate the efficacy and safety of giredestrant compared with fulvestrant, both in combination with the investigator’s choice of a CDK4/6 inhibitor (palbociclib, ribociclib or abemaciclib), in participants with estrogen receptor-positive (ER+), human epidermal growth factor receptor 2-negative (HER2-) advanced breast cancer who have developed resistance to adjuvant endocrine therapy.

Giredestrant, an investigational small molecule, is a full ER antagonist belonging to the selective estrogen receptor degrader class of therapeutics.

Giredestrant induces an inactive conformation to the ER LBD, as measured by displacement of co-activator peptides. In addition to its direct antagonist properties, the mechanism of action of giredestrant includes reducing levels of ER protein through proteasome-mediated degradation.

Fulvestrant is an estrogen receptor antagonist used to treat HR+ breast cancer that may also be HER2-.Fulvestrant is used in the management and treatment of advanced breast cancer. It is a selective estrogen receptor degrader. This activity outlines the indications, action, and contraindications for fulvestrant as a valuable agent in the treatment of advanced breast carcinoma.

Palbociclib is in a class of medications called kinase inhibitors. It works by blocking the action of the abnormal protein that signals cancer cells to multiply.

Ribociclib is a type of cancer growth blocker. It targets the proteins cyclin-dependent kinase 4 and cyclin-dependent 6 (CDK 4 and CDK 6) in breast cancer cells. CDK 4 and CDK 6 are proteins that stimulate cancer cells to divide and grow. Ribociclib works by blocking these proteins.
Abemaciclib is in a class of medications called kinase inhibitors. It works by blocking the action of an abnormal protein that signals cancer cells to multiply. This helps slow or stop the spread of cancer cells.

At the recent SEC meeting for Oncology and Hematology held on 21st and 22nd December 2023, the expert panel reviewed the Phase III clinical trial protocol No. CO44657.

After detailed deliberation, the committee recommended the grant of permission to conduct the clinical trial as presented by the firm.

Also Read:Justify Clinical Relevance of Higher Strength of Caroverine Capsules: CDSCO Panel Tells Lincoln Pharma

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Maternal depressive symptoms during pregnancy associated with slower fetal growth rate: JAMA

In a recent study published in the Journal of American Medical Association unveiled a significant association between maternal depressive symptoms and fetal growth during the critical rapid growth stage (CRGS) before delivery. This period is approximately from 30 to 37 gestational weeks and is crucial for the long-term health implications of the newborn.

The prospective birth cohort study spanned from January 2018 to December 2020 and involved 2676 mother-offspring dyads. Excluding the factors like severe pre-existing diseases and anomalies, the study focused on understanding the impact of maternal mental health on fetal growth parameters.

With the help of Edinburgh Postpartum Depression Scale (EPDS) to measure depressive symptoms at a median gestational week of 24, the research found that higher scores on the EPDS were correlated with a slower rate of fetal growth. This was evident in parameters such as biparietal diameter (BPD), femur length (FL), abdominal circumference (AC), and estimated fetal weight (EFW).

The results showed a notable correlation between decelerated fetal growth rate and a elevated maternal depressive symptoms. Specifically, a higher EPDS score was associated with a slower rate of growth across FL (β = −0.40), AC (β = −1.97), and EFW (β = −50.11). These associations were found to be stronger in female fetuses and those from families with better socioeconomic conditions.

This study found a previously underexplored facet of maternal mental health’s impact on fetal development, emphasizing the importance of early screening for depressive disorders in pregnant women. The findings imply that addressing maternal mental well-being might not only benefit the mother but also play a crucial role in ensuring optimal fetal growth and subsequent health outcomes.

Source:

Zhang, L., Li, P., Ge, Q., Sun, Z., Cai, J., Xiao, C., Yu, C., Nosarti, C., Liao, J., & Liu, Z. (2023). Maternal Prenatal Depressive Symptoms and Fetal Growth During the Critical Rapid Growth Stage. In JAMA Network Open (Vol. 6, Issue 12, p. e2346018). American Medical Association (AMA). https://doi.org/10.1001/jamanetworkopen.2023.46018

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Justify inter-subject variability in BE study data: CDSCO Panel Tells Alkem on anticancer drug Relugolix

New Delhi: Reviewing the bioequivalence (BE) study report of the anti-cancer drug Relugolix presented by the drug major Alkem Laboratories, the Subject Expert Committee (SEC) functional under the Central Drug Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) has opined the firm to submit the Justification regarding significant Inter subject variability in presented BE study data.

In addition, the expert panel suggested that Alkem Laboratories should submit published pharmacokinetic/pharmacodynamic (PK/PD) data and data on the ratio of serum to CSF concentration.

Furthermore, the committee stated that the firm should submit the minimum effective concentration in CSF required for the pharmacological action of the proposed drug.

This came after Alkem Laboratories presented the BE study report before the committee.

Relugolix is an oral GnRH receptor antagonist for androgen deprivation therapy in the treatment of advanced prostate cancer.

Relugolix is used to treat advanced prostate cancer (cancer that begins in the prostate [a male reproductive gland]) in adult men. Relugolix is in a class of medications called gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) receptor antagonists. It works by decreasing the amount of testosterone (a male hormone) produced by the body. This may slow or stop the spread of prostate cancer cells that need testosterone to grow.

At the recent SEC meeting for Oncology and Hematology held on 21st and 22nd December 2023, the expert panel reviewed the BE study report presented by the Alkem Laboratories.

After detailed deliberation, the committee opined that the firm should submit the following before the committee for further consideration:

1. Justification/clarification regarding significant inter-subject variability in presented BE study data.

2. Published PK/PD data

3. Data on the ratio of serum to CSF concentration

4. Minimum effective concentration in CSF required for pharmacological action of the proposed drug.

Also Read: CDSCO Panel grants AstraZeneca’s Protocol Amendment Proposal for Sodium zirconium cyclosilicate

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78 Specialist Post Vacancies At UPSC: Apply Now

New Delhi: The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) has invited online applications for the Specialist Grade III Post in the Department of Health & Family Welfare, Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi permanently in different dept.

UPSC is India’s premier central recruiting agency. It is responsible for appointments to and examinations for All India services and group A & group B of Central services.

UPSC Vacancy Details:

Total no. of Vacancies:- 78

The Vacancies are in Anaesthesiology, Biochemistry, Forensic Medicine, Microbiology, Pathology, and Plastic Surgery and Reconstructive Surgery.

Last Date of Application: 11th January 2024.

For more details about Qualifications, Age, Pay Allowance, and much more, click on the given link:

HOW TO APPLY?

i) Candidates must apply online through the website http://www.upsconline.nic.in. Applications received through any other mode would not be accepted and summarily rejected.

ii) Candidates must upload the documents/certificates in support of all the claims made by them in the application like, Date of Birth, Experience (preferably in prescribed format), Desirable Qualification(s) etc. or any other information, separately against each claim in pdf file in such a way that the file size does not exceed 1 MB for the respective aforesaid modules and 2 MB for the “UPLOAD OTHER DOCUMENT” module and is legible when a printout taken. For that purpose, the applicant may scan the documents/certificates in 200 dpi grey scale. Documents like Pay Slip, Resume, Appointment Letter, Relieving Letter, Un-signed Experience Certificate etc. must not be uploaded in the Document Upload Module:-

a) Matriculation/10th Standard or equivalent certificate indicating date of birth, or mark sheet of Matriculation/10th Standard or equivalent issued by Central/State Board indicating Date of Birth in support of claim of age. Where date of birth is not available in certificate/mark sheets, issued by concerned Educational Boards, School leaving certificate indicating Date of Birth (in case of Tamil Nadu& Kerala).

b) Degree/Diploma certificate as proof of educational qualification claimed. In the absence of Degree/Diploma certificate, provisional certificate along with mark sheets pertaining to all the academic years.

c) Order/ letter in respect of equivalent Educational Qualifications claimed, indicating the Authority (with number and date) under which it has been so treated, in respect of equivalent clause in Essential Qualifications, if a candidate is claiming a particular qualification as equivalent qualification as per the requirement of advertisement.

d) Certificate(s) in the prescribed proforma from the Head(s) of Organization(s)/Department(s) for the entire experience claimed, clearly mentioning the duration of employment (date, month & year) indicating the basic pay and consolidated pay. The certificate(s) should also mention the nature of duties performed/experience obtained in the post(s) with duration(s). Experience Certificate should be issued in prescribed format relevant to the post. Experience certificate not in prescribed proforma but containing all the details as mentioned above would be considered on merits by the Commission.

e) Caste certificate by candidate seeking reservation as SC/ ST/ OBC, in the prescribed proforma from the competent authority indicating clearly the candidate’s Caste, the Act/ Order under which the Caste is recognized as SC/ ST/ OBC and the village/ town the candidate is ordinarily a resident of.

f) A declaration in the prescribed format by candidate seeking reservation as OBC, that he/she does not belong to the creamy layer on the crucial date, in addition to the community certificate (OBC). Unless specified otherwise, the prescribed closing date for receipt of Online Recruitment Application for the post is to be treated as crucial date.

g) Certificate of Disability in prescribed proforma issued by the competent authority to Persons with Benchmark Disabilities (PwBD) eligible for appointment to the post on the basis of prescribed standards of Medical Fitness. The Competent Authority to issue Certificate of Disability shall be a Medical Board duly constituted by the Central or a State Government. The Central/ State Government may constitute Medical Board(s) consisting of at least three members out of which at least one shall be a specialist in the particular field for assessing Locomotor/ Cerebral / Visual / Hearing disability, as the case may be.

h) Documentary support for any other claim(s) made.

Note: If any document/ certificate furnished is in a language other than Hindi or English, a transcript of the same duly attested by a Gazetted officer or notary is to be uploaded.

Also Read:Walk In Interview At ESIC Medical College And Hospital Kalaburagi, Karnataka For Super Specialist Post, Apply Now

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CDSCO Panel Grants Novartis Protocol Amendment Proposal For Alpelisib

New Delhi: The Subject Expert Committee (SEC) functional under the Central Drug Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) has approved the drug major Novartis’ protocol amendment proposal for the phase III clinical trial of Alpelisib( BYL719) in combination with Nab-paclitaxel in patients with advanced triple-negative breast cancer with either phosphoinositide-3-kinase catalytic subunit alpha(PIK3CA) mutation or Phosphate and Tension Homolog Protein (PTEN) loss without PIK3CA mutation.

This came after the drug major Novartis presented Protocol Amendment version 02 dated 14 March 2023, Protocol no. CBYL719H12301.

The above study is a phase III, multicenter, randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled study to assess the efficacy and safety of alpelisib (BYL719) in combination with nab-paclitaxel in patients with advanced triple-negative breast cancer with either phosphoinositide-3-kinase catalytic subunit alpha (PIK3CA) mutation or phosphatase and tensin homolog protein (PTEN) loss without PIK3CA mutation.

Alpelisib is indicated in combination with fulvestrant to treat postmenopausal women, and men, with advanced or metastatic breast cancer. This cancer must be hormone receptor (HR)-positive, human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2)-negative, and PIK3CA­ mutated. The cancer must be detected by an FDA-approved test following progression on or after an endocrine-based regimen.

Alpelisib selectively inhibits PIK3 in the PI3K/AKT kinase (or protein kinase B) signaling pathway, thereby inhibiting the activation of the PI3K signaling pathway. This results in the inhibition of tumor cell growth and survival in susceptible tumor cell populations.

At the recent SEC meeting for Oncology and Hematology on 29th and 30th November 2023, the expert panel reviewed the Protocol Amendment proposal version 02 dated 14 March 2023, Protocol no. CBYL719H12301 presented by Novartis.

After detailed deliberation, the committee recommended the approval of the protocol amendment as presented by the firm.

Also Read: Conduct Phase III CT: CDSCO Panel Tells Akum Pharmaceutical on Antidiabetic FDC

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NBE To Conduct FDST On 20th January, Details

Delhi: The National Board of Examinations (NBE) has announced the conduction of the Foreign Dental Screening Test (FDST) for Indian Citizens/OCI possessing primary dental qualifications awarded by dental institutions outside India on 20th January 2024 on a Computer Based Platform in Delhi.

The admit card will be issued on 15th January 2024 and can be downloaded from the NBE website. Candidates will be informed through SMS/Email alerts and website notices regarding the availability of the admit card on the NBEMS website. Admit cards will not be sent to the candidates by Post/ Email.

Candidates are required to download their admit card from the NBEMS website and firmly affix their latest passport-sized photograph in the space provided on the admit card. The photograph must meet the following specifications –

1. Size of photograph: Minimum 35×45 mm (and not larger than the box printed on the admit card for pasting the photograph) with at least 75% of the area on the photograph should be occupied with the face & head of the candidate.

2. It should be a Colour photograph with a white background.

3. The photograph needs to display a full front view of the face with a neutral expression. No Caps, Stethoscope, Goggles, or Ornaments to be worn.

4. The photograph should not have reflection or shadow on the face with red eyes.

5. The photograph needs to be printed on high-quality paper with at least 600 dpi Resolutions.

6. The photograph must not have kinks, scratches, or stains.

Also Read:NEET 2024 Registration process Likely To begin next month

The result will be declared by 20th February 2024. It will be displayed on the NBE website. An applicant shall be declared as having passed only if he/she scores 50% in each paper individually to qualify for appearing in the viva-voce examination. Viva-Voce examination consists of 50 marks. The candidate has to score 50% in the viva-voce examination i.e. 25 / 50. The scheme regarding the delivery of an authenticated copy of the result shall be indicated on the website at the time of declaration of the result. There will be no re-evaluation or rechecking or re-totaling. Requests for re-evaluation/re-totaling shall not be entertained.

Appearance in the FDST does not confer any automatic rights to secure provisional or permanent registration with the Dental Council of India or any State Dental Council.

Candidates found ineligible at any stage of FDST, will not be permitted to appear in the examination. In the unlikely event of any ineligible candidate appearing and/or passing the FDST, the results/candidature of such candidate shall be canceled and/or deemed to be canceled, even if the result has been declared or a Pass Certificate has been issued.

Candidates’ eligibility is purely provisional & is subjected to the fulfillment of eligibility criteria as prescribed by the Dental Council of India. NBEMS reserves its absolute rights to alter the examination schedule, pattern, policy, and guidelines at any time. The candidate shall have no right whatsoever to claim/derive any right from past or present schedule, policy, and guidelines of NBEMS.

The request shall not be entertained for change in date/center of examination under any circumstances. Candidates are advised not to canvass for such representation.

FDST shall be conducted by NBEMS only at the Delhi Centre engaged for the purpose. Candidates are advised to familiarise themselves with the route and location of the exam center. The exact venue will be informed to the candidates through admit cards. The candidates shall make their own arrangements for travel/ boarding etc.

The examination test center staff on duty is authorized to verify the identity of candidates and may take steps to verify and record the identity of candidates. Candidates are required to extend requisite cooperation.

Possession/Use of mobile phones/Electronic devices is strictly prohibited on the premises of NBEMS Test Centres. Candidates shall be liable for penal action for Possession/ Use of Mobile phones/ Electronic devices.

Demo Test: A demo test shall be available for the benefit of candidates to familiarise themselves with the computer-based Test format at NBE website. Candidates will be able to access the Demo test from 10th January 2024 onward.

The exam consists of two question papers, comprising 100 and 150 multiple-choice, single-correct response questions in English language only. The examination shall be a multiple-choice question delivered as a Computer Based Test.

Allocation of time for the FDST shall be as follows –

Activities

Paper – I

Paper – II

Allow Candidates to enter the examination center and
Commence Registration

07:00 AM

12:00 PM

Entry closes at the Examination Center

08:30 AM

01:30 PM

Grant access for Candidate Login

08:45 AM

01:45 PM

Candidates log in to read instructions

08:50 AM

01:50 PM

Exam Start Time

09:00 AM

2:00 PM

Exam End Time

11:00 AM

5:00 PM

FDST for BDS Graduates is divided into two question papers of
100 and 150 questions with time allocation of 120 minutes and 180 minutes
respectively. There is a scheduled break of two hours between the two papers.
There shall be no negative marking. Each Question carries one mark. There will
be no grace marks. The candidate has to score 50% in each paper individually to
qualify for appearing in the viva‑voce examination. BDS-Viva Voce Examination: 50
Marks. The candidate has to separately score 50% in the viva voce examination.

Examiners for Viva-Voce Examination for BDS: There shall be
two examiners for Viva-Voce, out of whom, one internal from the examining
university and one external from any other university. The qualification of
examiners appointed for viva-voce for recognition of foreign UG/PG dental
qualification would be at par with the qualification prescribed for examiners
in the DCI Revised BDS Course Regulations, 2007 and MDS Course Regulations,
2007 and 2017, as amended from time to time.

There are no restrictions on the number of attempts that can be
availed by a candidate.

Overview of Computer-Based Test –

1. Demo Test (At NBEMS Website)

2. Issuance of Admit Cards

3. Reporting at the Test Centre on the Schedule Date and Time

4. Security Check-in Process

5. Registration for Test + Face ID Capture

6. Examination Begins

7. Examination Ends

Test day procedures –

NBEMS shall be conducting the Social Distance –

Computer Based Test (SD-CBT) in a safe and secure environment using touch-free processes maintaining social distancing norms wherever needed. NBEMS reserves its right to review the test day processes of conduct of CBT in the wake of the changing scenario of the COVID-19 pandemic.

Entry of Candidates as per Time given in the Admit Cards –

Candidates are required to report at the ‘Reporting Counter’ of the test venue at the time indicated in their admit cards. The reporting counter will close 30 minutes prior to the test start time. This will allow time for security checks, identity verification, and checking in for examination.

Candidates reporting late or beyond the prescribed time shall not be allowed to appear in the exam under any circumstances. NBEMS shall not be responsible for any delayed arrival of the candidate reaching the center due to any reason.

Test Centre Location –

The exact address and location of the test centers shall be indicated on the admit card. Candidates are advised to familiarise themselves with the test center locations at least one day prior to the examination day and ensure that they report for the exam at the scheduled time only.

Only the candidates who have been issued admit cards will be allowed entry inside the examination center premises subject to fulfilment of documentary requirements.

Barcode/QR Code Reader at Entry Points –

The candidate will flash the admit card and ID proof for verification to the exam functionary standing across the table with a barcode/QR code reader. The candidate shall be informed about the assigned lab number. At no time will the exam functionary touch any of the candidate’s documents.

Identity checks will be made upon arrival at the test center to ensure that there are no unauthorized candidates appearing for the exam.

Candidates must bring to the test center the following documents –

Printed copy of Barcoded/QR Coded Admit card with his/her photograph pasted on it.

Any one of the below-mentioned Govt issued photo IDs (must be original and valid/non-expired) –

1. PAN Card

2. Driving License

3. Voter ID

4. Passport

5. Aadhaar Card (with Photograph)

In case, any candidate reports to the test center with an e-Aadhaar Card with an Aadhaar number printed on it as proof of identity, the eAadhaar Card should be a good quality color printout with a clearly visible photograph. The photograph should not have kinks, scratches or stains, and should definitely match the candidate presenting the e-Aadhaar Card. The decision of NBEMS in this regard shall be final.

Candidates without valid ID proof shall not be allowed to enter the examination premises. Unfair means a case shall be registered against the candidates producing false/forged documents/ID Proofs.

Candidates will not be allowed to take the following items beyond the security checkpoint in examination premises under any circumstances –

1. Any stationery item like textual material (printed or written), notes, Plastic Pouch, Calculator, Pen, Writing Pad, Pen Drives, Eraser, etc.

2. Any electronic device like Mobile Phone, Bluetooth, Earphones, Microphone, Pager, wrist watch/Health Band, Calculator, Electronic Pen/ Scanner, etc.

3. All ornaments like bracelets, Ring, Earrings, Nose-pin, Chain/ Necklace, Pendants, Necklace with pendants, Badges, Brooch, etc.

4. Other items like Wallet, Goggles, Handbags, Belt, Cap, etc.

5. Any eatable item opened or packed, soft drinks, etc.

6. Any other item that could be used for unfair means, for hiding communication devices like wireless/Bluetooth devices, spy cameras, etc.

Candidates will be permitted to carry certain items with them to the examination lab –

1. Admit Card

2. Government-issued ID proof

Finger Biometrics of candidates shall be captured at the time of registration for the test at the test venue. However, Photographs of the candidates shall be captured on the exam day at the center. Candidates are requested to cooperate with this essential activity to avoid any cases of impersonation. This is a security feature that will ensure that only genuine candidates appear for the exam. Any candidate not adhering to the aforementioned security measures will not be allowed to take the test.

After the capture of biometrics and photographs, candidates will be escorted to the designated computer terminal at the test center ensuring social distancing and an Invigilator will assist the candidate with the check-in process of the test.

Candidates are required to keep their admit card and photo identification with them at all times during the conduct of the examination. Manual Attendance will be captured on physical attendance sheets.

To view the notice, click on the link below –

https://medicaldialogues.in/pdf_upload/natboard-datapublicnoticeuploadedfilefile202401058225-229408.pdf

Also Read:Bond Service Allotment: DMER Maharashtra Invites Online Applications From PG Degree Holders Winter 2023 Batch, details

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21-year-old blood cancer patient airlifted from Ahmedabad to Telangana for treatment

Gandhinagar: A 21-year-old youth battling blood cancer was airlifted from Ahmedabad to Telangana with the help of Gujarat health minister Rushikesh Patel. 

The youth was studying in Gujarat’s Rashtriya Raksha Shakti University and sought help due to his financial inability to return to his home in Telangana.

Also Read:Gujrat Govt Ambulances to get High tech, Have GPS, real-time location tracking of patients

The blood cancer patient had become unconscious after which he was taken to Apollo Hospital in Gandhinagar. Normally a person’s WBC count is 4000 to 11000 but in this case, it had increased to 4,50,000.

The team of doctors cured the patient by performing a surgery.

The man had sought help from the Health Minister due to financial inability to return. After which, Rushikesh Patel helped the patient return home by airlift and admitted him to the hospital in Telangana.

Medical Dialogues team had earlier reported that a harvested human heart was airlifted from Nagpur to Pune in an IAF plane and later transplanted into a recipient admitted to the Army Institute of Cardio-Thoracic Sciences (AICTS) in the western Maharashtra city. The live heart, retrieved from a woman declared brain dead, was successfully transplanted into the recipient, a male air warrior at the Pune-based AICTS, later in the day. The vital organ was sent through a green corridor created by the civil administration before being transported to Pune, more than 700 km from Nagpur, on an Indian Air Force (IAF) AN-32 aircraft in the “most expeditious” manner, said a defence release here. The flying time was around 90 minutes, said an official. 

A separate press release issued by the zonal transplant coordination centre said the donor of the heart was a 31-year-old woman, Shubhangi Gannyarpawar, who resided in Nagpur with her husband and one- and-a-half-year old daughter. 

Also Read:Gujarat doctors end strike after Health Minister allows ad-hoc appointment at civil hospitals

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Medical College need to Follow MSMER for continuation of recognition: NMC releases FAQs on Recognition Of Medical Qualification Regulations 2023

New Delhi: Through a recent notice, the National Medical Commission (NMC) has released the Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs) for Recognition of Medical Qualification Regulations 2023 (Recognition Regulations 2023).

Issuing the FAQs, the NMC discussed the implications of these regulations, accreditation and recognition definition and list of recognized qualifications to practice allopath in India.

The notice further stated, “These FAQs are in the nature of explanation for ease of understanding of the general public and cannot be upheld in a court of law. Please refer to the relevant Guidelines for legal validity.”

1. From which day will these Regulations be applicable?

These Regulations shall be applicable from the date of publication i.e. from 29.12.2023.

2. For whom are these Regulations applicable?

These Regulations are applicable for all stake holders, i.e. for every institution / medical college under jurisdiction of NMC and the students studying in such institutions for award of a medical (UG or PG) degree thereof.

3. What will be the implications of these regulations?

a. Recognition means ‘recognition of the degree/ qualification awarded to already permitted seats in a given college under its affiliated university’.

b. However all the concerned institutions/ colleges/ students/ stake holders shall have to follow “Maintenance of Standards of Medical Education Regulations, 2023” called MSMER-23 dated 19.09.2023, for continuation of such recognition.

4. What is accreditation and recognition?

‘Accreditation’ means recognition of a course for the award of a degree/ qualification, conducted by a college affiliated to a UGC recognized university.

With the publication of this Regulation, ‘Recognition’ shall mean ‘recognition of the degree/ qualification awarded to already permitted seats in a given college under its affiliated university’.

5. Where will be the list of recognized qualifications to practice allopath in India, be available?

Chapter 2; Clause 5 of Recognition regulations, dated 29.12.2023.

The new regulations mentioned that the list of recognised medical qualifications in India is to be maintained by the Under Graduate Medical Education Board (UGMEB) in respect of undergraduate medical qualifications and the Post Graduate Medical Education Board (PGMEB) for the post-graduate medical qualification.

As per the notification, the recognised Undergraduate qualification is the Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery (M.B.B.S). Further, the list of recognised Post-Graduate qualifications include the following:

a. Post-graduate Broad Speciality Qualifications [M.D. (Doctor of Medicine)/ M.S. (Master of Surgery)] – Annexure-I of the PGMER-2023

b. Post-graduate Super Speciality Courses [ D.M. (Doctorate of Medicine)/ M.Ch (Master of Chirurgie)]- Annexure-II of the PGMER-2023

c. Post-graduate Diploma Courses – Annexure-III of the PGMER-2023

d. Post-Doctoral Certificate Courses (PDCC)- Annexure-IV of the PGMER-2023

e. Post-Doctoral Fellowship (PDF)- Annexure-V of the PGMER-2023

f. D.M./M.Ch. Courses of six years duration – Annexure-VI of the PGMER-2023

Also Read:NMC Recognition of Medical Qualifications Regulations 2023 released, Details

To view the notice, click on the link below –

https://medicaldialogues.in/pdf_upload/faqs-on-recognition-regulation-2023-229410.pdf

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Organs from JIPMER Puducherry to Kauvery Hospital transported within 2 hours

Chennai: In a deeply touching display of humanity’s kindness and generosity, last night marked a profoundly moving chapter. A 43-year-old woman has generously donated the chance of life through organ donation. 

Her selflessness, stemming from a cerebral artery aneurysm, sets the stage for a transformative dual lung transplantation for a 50-year-old recipient who has waited over a year for this life-altering opportunity.

Also Read:Kauvery Hospital performs scarless, Minimally Invasive Thyroid Surgery on 40-year-old woman

Significantly, this event underscores the expertise of Kauvery Hospital, Vadapalani in the realm of Lung Transplantation. With a history of successful Multi Organ Transplants in our other units, our proficiency takes a new dimension at the Vadapalani branch marking the first lung transplantation at Kauvery Hospital, Vadapalani.

The lung’s swift journey from JIPMER in Puducherry to Kauvery Hospital, Vadapalani in Chennai, facilitated by a green corridor, exemplified the collaborative efforts of Tambaram Police Commissionerate, Avadi Police Commissionerate, Chennai Traffic Police Personnel and the public.

This noble endeavour, made possible by the unwavering cooperation of the Chennai community, held the promise of transforming a life that had long awaited this miraculous chance. This remarkable act of kindness served as a reminder of the immense significance of organ donation and the beauty of humanity.

Transplant Authority Government of Tamil Nadu (TRANSTAN) and Kauvery Hospital, Vadapalani extend our heartfelt gratitude to the Chennai Traffic Police Personnel and the public for their crucial role in making this life-saving journey possible.

Also Read:Doctors at Kauvery Hospital perform Anterior Corpus Callosotomy on 36-Year-Old Bahraini Resident to treat uncontrolled Epilepsy

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JIPMER Invites New Research Proposals For Intramural Grant From PG Students, details

Puducherry: Jawaharlal Institute of Postgraduate Medical Education & Research (JIPMER) has invited new research proposals for the intramural grant.

The research proposals are accepted from MD/MS/DM/M.Ch./MDS/MPH/PhD/Fellowship/MSc students with Faculty as Guide. The application should be submitted by the respective Guide(s). Direct applications from the students will not be considered. The applications will be received at the Dean (Research) Office up to 15.01.2024.

One hard copy of the complete proforma of the Research Proposal (Section 1, 2) with the requisite original signature and seal (Section 2 must have original signature and seal) needs to be submitted along with the IEC approval certificate and PGRMC minutes/DC minutes/JSAC. PGRMC minutes/DC minutes/JSAC should include the source of financial support as intramural and the amount of financial support failing which it will not be considered for intramural funding. Students may refer to the Postgraduate Dissertation Guidelines 2020 in this regard. Section 2 (Budget Details for Intramural Research Grant) of the proforma has been revised.

Also Read:JIPMER Announces Conduction Of 9th CNE Workshop Based On Short Term Courses For Nurses

A copy of the Section 2 (IMRF) modified version is available on the JIPMER website so as to fill in and attach the same in the proforma. A soft copy of the full proposal must be emailed to the imrfjipmer@gmail.com.

Quotation and comparative statements are not required for submitting an IMRF proposal. Quotations, comparative statements and invoices must be submitted to the Finance Wing for settling the bills. All IMRF purchases must follow the JIPMER purchase procedure.

Request for extension of existing projects will also be considered for valid and essential reasons. Faculty Members who apply for extension are required to submit the progress report, failing which such a request for extension will not be considered. It is mandatory that the research output of an earlier grant has to be published, and the evidence should be submitted to the Dean (Research) Office when the faculty members apply for the subsequent grant.

Unless a copy of the published paper(s)/submission/acceptance/rejection from the previous grant(s) is attached, your application will not be considered for IMRF. Incomplete IMRF Forms will be summarily rejected.

To view the notice, click on the link below –

https://medicaldialogues.in/pdf_upload/irf-229134.pdf

Also Read:JIPMER Announces Conduction Of 1st Year Orientation Program For MD, MS, DM, MCH, MDS students

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